Wednesday 4 November 2015

CL 15 05

Solutions of Mock CAT - 05 2015


  • QA&DI
  • VA&LR
  •  

    Sec 1

      Q.1 
    A shopkeeper sells rice at a mark-up of 22.22%. However, to all his customers purchasing 10 kg or more rice, he gives 1 kg of rice free and to all his customers purchasing more than 20 kg of rice, he gives 2 kg of rice free. On a particular day, he sells rice to 6 customers purchasing 2 kg, 10 kg, 15 kg, 9 kg, 25 kg and 50 kg. What is the shopkeeper's approximate net profit percentage on the day?
    a   10.00
     13.50
     12.22
     16.00
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.2 
    Let f(α) be a real valued function such that f(α) = a√α , where 'a' is a non-zero constant. If f(x), f(y)and f(x + y) indicate the sides of a right angled triangle, then the area of the triangle is
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.3 
    N is an even number in the decimal system. If S is the sum of the digits of N when it is written in base 7, then S is certainly a/an
    a   even
     odd
     composite
     Both (a) and (c)
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.4 
    If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle, then the minimum value of  is nearest to
    a   1
     2
     1/2
     1/3
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.5 
    The volume (cubic units) of a sphere whose surface area is 50% more than the total surface area of a cylinder of unit radius as well as unit height, is
    a   √2
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.6 
    Rekha and Kallu have a certain number of red and black marbles with them. The ratio of red to black marbles with Rekha is 7 : 1 and that of those with Kallu is 9 : 1. If the total number of black and red marbles with the two is 90, the number of red marbles with Kallu is
    a   9 or 45
     10 or 50
     36 or 72
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.7 

    a   (–2, 1)
     (5, 0)
     (3, 1)
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : d

      Q.8 
    In the month of January, what is the ratio of probability of someone's birthday falling on a date that is a prime number to the probability of the birthday falling on a date that is the square of a prime number?
    a   11/4
     11/3
     4/11
     3/11
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : b

      Q.9 

    a   x > 3
     x ≤ 3
     x < 3
     – 2 < x ≤ 3
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : c

      Q.10 
    The area of the region bounded by y = |x – 1| and y = 3 – |x| is
    a   2
     1
     4
     3
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : c

      Q.11 

    a   240
     196
     244
     256
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : c

      Q.12 
    Raman mixes a 20% milk solution and a 30% milk solution in the ratio of a : b. The new solution thus obtained is mixed with an equal quantity of a 60% milk solution, to obtain a 42% milk solution. Find the ratio of a to b.
    a   4 : 1
     3 : 2
     5 : 2
     Data inconsistent
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : b

      Q.13 
    Ram distributed a certain number of chocolates among a few kids, such that the sum of the number of chocolates received by the kid who received the minimum number of chocolates and that by the kid who received the maximum number of chocolates is 10. Each kid got a distinct number of chocolates, which did not have a common factor with 10, except 1. The number of chocolates with Ram could not be more than
    a   19
     18
     40
     20
    Solution:
    To maximise the number of chocolates with Ram, the number of kids among whom he distributed chocolates must have been the maximum possible.
    As chocolates receive by children were distinct numbers co-prime to 10, chocolates received by children must have been 1, 3, 7, 9.
    Hence, the required number of chocolates = 1 + 3 + 7 + 9 = 20.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.14 
    Only three horses – Kanishka, Silver Streak and Arabian Knight – are competing in a race. If Kanishka is twice as likely to win as Silver Streak and Sliver Streak is twice as likely to win as Arabian Knight, what is the probability of Arabian Knight losing the race? (Assume that no two horses finish the race simultaneously.)
    a   4/7
     6/7
     5/7
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : b

      Q.15 
    If the LCM of 1, 2, 3, …, 60 is n, the LCM of 1, 2, 3, …, 65 is
    a   61n
     63n
     122n
     126n
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : c

      Q.16 
    If x, y > 0 and 2x + 3y = 7, find the maximum value of x3y4.
    a   32/3
     16/3
     64/3
     8
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : a

      Q.17 
    Two runners A and B started running simultaneously from points P and Q for Q and P respectively. They met at a point, S, and after that they took 18/5 min and 10 min respectively to reach their respective destinations. After how much time, from the start, did they meet each other at point S?
    a   6.4 min
     3.2 min
     6 min
     3 min
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : c

      Q.18 
    If AAA + AA + A + A + A = 10n, where A and n are single digit integers, then what is the value of A?
    a   2
     4
     6
     8
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : d

      Q.19 
    Find the number of composite factors of 619 × 4096.
    a   639
     638
     640
     637
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : d

      Q.20 
    A circular sheet C of the maximum possible area is cut out from a metal sheet, which is in the shape of a square. Similarly, maximum possible number of circular sheets – C1, C2, C3, … – of varying radii are cut out from another identical metal sheet, such that the leftover area is the minimum possible. What is the approximate value of the ratio of the area of C to the sum of the areas of C1, C2, C3, …?
    a   1 : 1
     1 : √2
      : 4
     (4 – ) : 4
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.21 


    In the above diagram, drawn to scale, the points A, B, C and D have coordinates as A(5, 0), B(7, 0), C (7, 9) and D(5, 4). Which of the following is closest to the area of the shaded region?
    a   12 sq. units
     18 sq. units
     17 sq. units
     14 sq. units
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.22 
    In the performance appraisal report of a company, six exams – p1, p2, p3, p4, p5 and p6 – were considered for evaluation. Each exam was of 100 marks. The report of the exams is given below:

    Number of employees passed in p1, p2, p3, p4, p5 = 10
    Number of employees passed in p2, p3, p4, p5, p6 = 15
    Number of employees passed in p3, p4, p5, p6, p1 = 20
    Number of employees passed in p4, p5, p6, p1, p2 = 10
    Number of employees passed in p5, p6, p1, p2, p3 = 15
    Number of employees passed in p6, p1, p2, p3, p4 = 10 

    If the number of employees who passed in all the six exams is 10, find the number of employees who passed in exactly five exams.
    a   20
     10
     15
     Data Insufficient
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.23 
    Find the digit at the tens place of the number 2589.
    a   7
     5
     2
     4
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.24 
    AB is a common chord of two circles – C1 and C2 – with radius r1and r2 respectively.
    S denotes the statement: AB divides the C1 into two parts of equal area. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
    a   S is true if C1C2 > r2
     If S is true then C1C2 > r2
     If S is true then it is possible that C1C2 > r2.
     If S is true then it is necessary that C1C2 < r2.
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.25 

    a   45
     1/4032
     81
     None of these
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : a

      Q.26 
    Natural numbers from 1 to m are written one after another as 1234567…….m. If the number thus formed is divisible by 3, then m is of the form
    I. 3n, where n is a natural number
    II. 3n – 1, where n is a natural number
    III. 3n – 2, where n is a natural number
    a   I only
     I or II only
     I or III only
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : b

      Q.27 
    Tarun, Gautam and Prakash went to an ice-cream Parlour to buy one ice-cream, each. Gautam bought an icecream costing Rs. 71, but he had only Rs. 500 notes so Prakash paid the bill. Prakash had 3 wallets – A, B and C – the amount in each of which was an integer. He took some money from wallet A, some from B and rest from C. In how many ways could he withdraw money from three wallets such that money taken out from A was more than that from B, and money taken out from B was more than that from C?
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.28 
    The number of mangoes with Sonu is a multiple of 3 and the number of bananas with Sohan is a multiple of 5. If the total number of fruits with the two is 103, what is the absolute difference between the maximum possible number of mangoes with Sonu and the minimum possible number of bananas with Sohan?
    a   83
     93
     95
     85
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.29 
    A can complete a piece of work in 'a' days by working 'm' hrs per day, and B can complete the same work in 'b' days by working 'n' hrs per day. If each of them reduces his working hours per day by 4 hrs, each of them would take 5 days more to finish the job (a, b, m and n are distinct natural numbers and m, n < 16). How long would it take to complete the work, if A and B started working together such that A worked for 'm' hrs per day and B worked for 'n' hrs per day?
    a   10/3 days
     4 days
     5 days
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.30 
    Let T be a point on the side PS of square PQRS of area 256 sq cm. The perpendicular to the line TR at R meets the line segment PQ, when extended, at U. If the area of the ΔRUT is 200 sq cm, then the length of QU is
    a   12 cm
     4 cm
     8 cm
     9 cm
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.31 
    A table clock loses 5 min per hour. A wall clock loses 5 min per hour with respect to the table clock. A wrist watch gains 5 min per hour with respect to the wall clock. All the watches and clocks are set correctly at 12:00 pm. What will be the time shown by the wrist watch, when it is 2:00 pm for the first time after 12:00 pm?
    a   1 : 49 : 14 pm
     1 : 47 : 57 pm
     1 : 40 : 11 pm
     1 : 41 : 57 pm
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.32 

    a   6
     5
     4
     3
    Solution:

      Correct Answer : a

      Q.33 
    a   4
     3
     2
     No solution
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.34 
    Four black cows and three brown cows give as much milk in five days as three black cows and five brown cows give in four days. If a black cow gives 10 L of milk per day, what is the amount of milk that a brown cow gives per day?
    a   1.3 L
     6.25 L
     10 L
     16 L
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. The returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms.

    According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ratio of the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme, will be given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes having the worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.
      Q.35 
    How many schemes are there with an asset of more than Rs. 500 crore and the ratio of Return 1-year to Best 1-year return more than 2?
    a   5
     6
     7
     8
    Solution:
    Reliance Growth, Birla Dividend Yield Plus and Templeton India Growth do not fit. Hence, the required number of companies is 7.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. The returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms.

    According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ratio of the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme, will be given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes having the worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.
      Q.36 
    Based on the SEBI's directive, which scheme will get the gold medal?
    a   Reliance Growth
     Franklin India Prima
     HSBC equity
     Reliance Vision
    Solution:
    The required scheme was Reliance Growth.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. The returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms.

    According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ratio of the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme, will be given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes having the worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.
      Q.37 
    Based on the SEBI's directive, which scheme will get the silver medal?
    a   Templeton India Growth
     Reliance Vision
     DSPML Opportunities
     HDFC Top 200
    Solution:
    Templeton India Growth was 2nd best and it was 0.52.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. The returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms.

    According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ratio of the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme, will be given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes having the worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.
      Q.38 
    Based on the SEBI's directive, which two schemes will be barred from doing any business in future?
    a   HSBC Equity and Franklin India Blue-chip
     Birla Dividend Yield Plus Franklin India Blue-chip
     HSBC Equity and HDFC Equity
     None of these
    Solution:
    The schemes with bottom two values of the required ratio are HSBC Equity (0.09) and Franklin India Blue-chip (0.14).
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
      Q.39 
    The number of outlets that sold mobiles of only one brand could not be more than
    a   7
     4
     5
     6
    Solution:
    Break-up of mobiles sold brandwise:
    A-22%, B-16%, C-28%, D-11%, E- 23%
    Following are the outlets that would sell mobile phones of only one brand:
    T, N → E
    P, Q → C
    S, U → B
    V → A or R → A
    Hence, the number of required outlets is 7.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
      Q.40 
    If R did not sell mobile of brand A, and A did not constitute more than 30% of sales of any outlets, the sales of brand A through any of the outlets as a percentage of the total sales of that outlet could not be less than
    a   7.77%
     14.2%
     5%
     1.4%
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
      Q.41 
    Due to some technical glitch, brand C had to recall 40% of its products sold in 2014 in Delhi. It is also known that every outlet had sold at least 10% of these defective items. If the sales of each outlet was adjusted after this recall then, after adjustment, the share of sales of any outlet as a percentage of total sales could not be less than
    a   5.36%
     4.76%
     4.1%
     3.64%
    Solution:
    Lets assume total sales be 100x. C's sale will be 28x and total recall will be 0.4 X 28x = 11.2x.
    Now the total sales will be 100x – 11.2x = 88.8x
    If the maximum recall is from outlet having least share then the impact will be maximum, that is U.
    So minimum recall is from other outlets, 1.12x by each of the other 7 outlets, that is 7.84x. Hence remaining 3.36x recall will be from U. Now, share of U will be ((7x – 3.36x)/ 88.8x) X 100 % = 4.1%
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
      Q.42 
    If R sold at least 30% of the total mobiles sold of brands A and C put together, then at most what percentage of the total mobiles sold of brand B were sold by R?
    a   31.25%
     16.66%
     33.3%
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1 to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each. They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points, runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
    The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds. 

    Additional Data:
    (i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
    (ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
    (iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds, is not a prime number.
    (iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.
      Q.43 
    If 3 players got the same value on the die, in both the rounds, what was the value on the die of the player in G2 who got the lowest value in Round1?
    a   1
     4
     2
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1 to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each. They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points, runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
    The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds. 

    Additional Data:
    (i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
    (ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
    (iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds, is not a prime number.
    (iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.
      Q.44 
    If the same 3 players from the 3 teams got least values in their respective team in both the rounds, what is the minimum possible value of the sum of 2 values in 2 rounds for any of these 3 players?
    a   5
     4
     3
     2
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1 to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each. They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points, runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
    The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds. 

    Additional Data:
    (i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
    (ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
    (iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds, is not a prime number.
    (iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.
      Q.45 
    For which team no player could get 4 on the die in any of the two rounds ?
    a   G3
     G2
     G1
     Not possible
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1 to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each. They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points, runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
    The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds. 

    Additional Data:
    (i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
    (ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
    (iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds, is not a prime number.
    (iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.
      Q.46 
    Which team could definitely not get the same AD in both rounds?
    a   G1
     G2
     G3
     More than one of them
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group, 85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60 students belong to both lion and leopard groups.
      Q.47 
    If the number of students belonging to all the three groups is mean (average) of its maximum possible value and minimum possible value, how many students in the hostel do not belong to any of the three groups?
    a   130
     170
     80
     Data insufficient
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group, 85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60 students belong to both lion and leopard groups.
      Q.48 
    If the number of students belonging to all three groups is maximum possible value and tiger group starts collecting a 'Rangdari tax' from all those students who do not belong to this group at the rate of Rs. 10 per student, then what will be the amount collected by tiger group in the form of Rangdari tax?
    a   Rs. 700
     Rs. 2,300
     Rs. 1,600
     Rs. 900
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group, 85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60 students belong to both lion and leopard groups.
      Q.49 
    If the number of students belonging to at least one of the three groups is its minimum possible value, what is the number of students who belong to only lion group?
    a   65
     20
     0
     55
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group, 85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60 students belong to both lion and leopard groups.
      Q.50 
    If the number of students belonging to none of the three groups is maximum, how many students belong to exactly two of the three groups?
    a   105
     145
     25
     85
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Sec 2

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every single moment. But what reality?

    Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist, traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

    One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to them.

    I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's independence, even superiority.

    One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes, poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

    Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes the artist an emblem of modern life.

    The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés, the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a judgment to be feared.

    Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

    Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

    Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing. Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.
      Q.51 
    Through this passage, the author attempts to do which of the following?
    a   The author attempts to show that Monet evokes a world of color from themes that never before existed within it.
     The author attempts to show Monet's development, increasingly isolated from the avant-garde he helped so to create.
     The author attempts to show that in Monet, for the first time, the artist became independent of worldly forms.
     The author attempts to show that Monet did copy appearances, but he transformed both copying and seeing into a creative act.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is incorrect because of "never before existed within it". The passage does not talk of Monet creating something that did not actually exist. Option (b) is negated because the passage says that Monet defined a new, powerful avant-garde and does not talk of a shift to isolation from this avant-garde. Option (c) is ruled out because the author talks of Monet making the artist an emblem of modern life but not of the artist becoming independent of worldly reforms. Refer to the lines-"A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception." Also, refer to the lines- "When he paints an urban train station……. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's independence, even superiority." This gives us the answer as option (d).
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every single moment. But what reality?

    Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist, traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

    One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to them.

    I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's independence, even superiority.

    One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes, poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

    Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes the artist an emblem of modern life.

    The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés, the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a judgment to be feared.

    Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

    Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

    Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing. Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.
      Q.52 
    According to the author, which of the following describes an activity that Monet indulged in?
    a   Of being an avid traveler
     Of transcribing what one sees
     Of being only in the company of one's friends
     Of doing whatever one wishes to do
    Solution:
    Throughout the passage , the author talks about how Monet painted what he saw. Refer to the lines- "Monet does focus art on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart." Monet transcribed what he saw through his paintings. The author refers to Monet as the perfect tourist, and not an avid traveler. Also, the passage only says that Monet's subjects are his motley friends and there is no other mention of Monet's friends. The passage does not talk of Monet confirming to someone else's wishes. Yet, we cannot conclude that Monet did whatever he wished to do.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every single moment. But what reality?

    Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist, traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

    One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to them.

    I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's independence, even superiority.

    One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes, poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

    Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes the artist an emblem of modern life.

    The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés, the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a judgment to be feared.

    Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

    Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

    Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing. Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.
      Q.53 
    The author would agree with which of the following?
    a   Monet's each painting offers a new technical challenge, startlingly overcome.
     Good art should stress the conjunction of visual imagining with the artist's original vision.
     Monet elevated subject and canvas together above everyday things.
     Artistic vision should mean imagining rather than mirroring.
    Solution:
    Refer to the lines- "When he paints an urban train station……. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's independence, even superiority." This gives us the answer as option (c). The author has tried to show how Monet was interested in the preconditions of any critical perception. He compared the vision that Monet possessed with that of a wealthy tourist and of a critic. The passage does not talk of anything new that Monet's each painting offers. It also does not define 'good art' and 'artistic vision'.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every single moment. But what reality?

    Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist, traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

    One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to them.

    I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's independence, even superiority.

    One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes, poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

    Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes the artist an emblem of modern life.

    The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés, the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a judgment to be feared.

    Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

    Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

    Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing. Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.
      Q.54 
    The passage has most likely been taken from?
    a   An article on postmodernist artists
     A review of an art show
     An essay on Monet
     A critical analysis of Monet
    Solution:
    An article on Postmodernist artists would compare, contrast and describe various artists. Although the author has mentioned Manet and Renoir but it has been done merely to explain Monet's art. The author refers to rooms and paintings displayed. This indicates that this is a review of an art show. The passage also talks of the Art Institute reuniting the surviving fragments of a painting. This makes option (b) correct.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory; and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell, however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor and no conscience, is not a fact.
      Q.55 
    Which of the following is a reason, according to the author, that helps us reconcile with the idea of death?
    a   We become slightly better each time that we are born again.
     When we die, we leave all our mistakes and immorality behind.
     We were a sorry job to begin with and it is better to be remanufactured.
     Our personality and its faults are no longer meaningful when we are born again and again.
    Solution:
    The author states that practise as you will on man's ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift individualities for ever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a being that cannot be improved upon. This gives answer as option (b)
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory; and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell, however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor and no conscience, is not a fact.
      Q.56 
    What is the author's idea of Hell?
    a   To live forever
     To live forever as the same person that we are in this life
     To live forever with the same people, in the same world
     To live an immoral life
    Solution:
    Refer to the lines- "in hell alone do people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality." This gives answer as option (b).
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory; and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell, however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor and no conscience, is not a fact.
      Q.57 
    What according to the author is the goal of evolution?
    a   To create an individual that is moral and cannot be corrupted
     To create an individual that can lead a perfect life
     To create an individual that lives forever
     None of the above
    Solution:
    The author states that the goal of evolution is creation of a perfect being, who cannot be improved upon. Hence, none of the options are correct.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory; and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell, however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor and no conscience, is not a fact.
      Q.58 
    The tone of the author is
    a   cynical
     didactic
     pedantic
     righteous
    Solution:
    The author intends to tell people that it is not desirable to live forever. Hence, the tone is didactic, which means intended to teach, particularly in having moral instruction. Option (c) is eliminated as pedantic means excessively concerned with minor details or rules; over-scrupulous. The author has exhibited no such tendency.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of consciousness.

    Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols, and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior, like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect, advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

    The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk. There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends without letting them know what they are undertaking.
      Q.59 
    The author is likely to agree with which of the following?
    a   The less cultivated the mind, the less courage there is to face important subjects objectively.
     We often see the abuse of authority to keep people in ignorance and error.
     The ordinary man dislikes having his mind unsettled; his passions awakened.
     Both (a) and (b)
    Solution:
    Refer to the lines-" Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned,………… because they rouse the crude passions". Option (a) is incorrect as the author does not talk about discussing subjects objectively. Also he does not state that politics, religion and sex are important subjects. Option (b) is also incorrect because the author does not talk of any abuse of authority.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of consciousness.

    Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols, and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior, like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect, advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

    The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk. There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends without letting them know what they are undertaking.
      Q.60 
    Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
    a   The subject of sex is suppressed because it is a taboo.
     Young girls need protection from risks they are too young to understand.
     The consent to marry can be given only when one has knowledge of sex.
     A relationship cannot be realized if the details of it are suppressed.
    Solution:
    Refer to the lines- "The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out altogether as indecent, has no age limit." This gives the answer as option (a). Option (b) is incorrect as the author states that the taboo has no age bar. The author states that the consent for marriage should include the knowledge of the relation one is about to undertake; it does not state that it is a necessary condition in reality. This makes option (c) incorrect. Option (d) is incorrect as the relationship may be realized but may not be fulfilling if the details are suppressed.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of consciousness.

    Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols, and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior, like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect, advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

    The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk. There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends without letting them know what they are undertaking.
      Q.61 
    Why is it important for children to be taught by qualified unrelated adults?
    a   Related adults might not be qualified.
     The relationship of the child with a related adult is reticent.
     The discussion can be free and without reserve if done with an unrelated adult.
     All of the above
    Solution:
    Refer to the lines-"the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between them". This makes option (d) as the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of consciousness.

    Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols, and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior, like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect, advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

    The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk. There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends without letting them know what they are undertaking.
      Q.62 
    Which of the following has not been discussed as an aim of sex education?
    a   To be able to differentiate between accurate and inaccurate information
     To be able to understand the moral and cultural frameworks of society
     To be able to make informed choices
     To be able to form correct attitudes and beliefs
    Solution:
    The author states that children should learn from unrelated qualified adults otherwise they will get incomplete and often inaccurate information. This eliminates option (a). In the event of marriage, girls should have knowledge of the relation they are about to undertake. This eliminates option (c). The child should not learn sex as if it is a guilty secret. This eliminates option (d). Only option (b) has not been talked about and is hence, the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.63 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
    A. The task may be harder than she imagines.
    B. It is the Marmite of the meat counter - dark, salty and you either love it or hate it.
    C. But black pudding is gaining in popularity, with a little help from celebrity chefs, manufacturers and even government ministers.
    D. I love the stuff, but my children are squeamish eaters and the very notion of a "blood sausage" brings about their swift exit from the kitchen.
    E. The environment minister, Liz Truss, recently listed the culinary concoction of blood, salt and rusk among the "must-eat" British foods that a new generation should be introduced to.
    a   BCEAD
     CEADB
     EADBC
     ADBCE
    Solution:
    EA is a mandatory pair . D follows A and explains why the task is "harder than she imagines". BC should come before EA as it introduces the black pudding. Hence, answer is option (a).
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.64 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
    A. That said, understanding and doing aren't the same thing.
    B. "I've a lot of available options as a playwright and that comes from knowing a lot of plays," he says.
    C. Theatre academic and playwright Dan Rebellato believes seeing a wide range of work opens up one's possibilities.
    D. Even seeing the breadth of playwrights' work encourages him to experiment.
    E. You can see why a critic, so accustomed to judging, might struggle to start.
    a   CBADE
     ECDBA
     EBCDA
     CBDAE
    Solution:
    CBD forms a mandatory sequence. 'he' in B and 'him' in D refer to Dan Rebellato in C. A follows this sequence and takes the passage forward. It is the reason for the conclusion given in E. Options (a), (b) and (c) can be eliminated by this mandatory sequence. This makes option (d) the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.65 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
    A. Amani Yahya - billed as Yemen's first female rapper - is still thousands of miles away.
    B. On top of this, her visa to attend the UK festival has been denied. 
    C. With her homeland on the brink of civil war, Yahya, along with her family, has had to flee to Saudi Arabia, where the kingdom's strict rules mean her fledging musical career has come to an abrupt halt. 
    D. "I was so excited to be coming to the UK," says the 22-year-old, who started rapping in her bedroom while at high school.
    E. It's day three of the Liverpool Arab Arts festival, but one of its performers hasn't yet been to a single event.
    a   ACDBE
     EACBD
     EACDB
     ACBDE
    Solution:
    ACB is a mandatory sequence. C explains why Amani Yahya is thousands of miles away, as mentioned in A. B follows this with 'on top of that'. This eliminates options (a) and (c). E should come before this sequence as it talks about the event which Amani Yahya is not able to attend. This makes option (b) the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.66 
    Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
    A. But under the Public Order Act 1986 the home secretary has no power to ban static demonstrations.
    B. The small New Dawn party has planned a protest in Golders Green for 4 July.
    C. The Golders Green Together campaign, launched on Monday by the London Jewish Forum and the anti-fascist organisation Hope Not Hate, plans to spark feelings of solidarity in the area.
    D. It will take place on a Saturday - the Jewish sabbath - in an area where about 40% of the population are Jewish.
    E. Tessa Jowell, one of the contenders to become Labour's London mayoral candidate, has asked Theresa May to prevent the march from going ahead and 11,000 people have signed an online petition to that effect.
    a   BDCEA
     BDEAC
     EACBD
     CDBAE
    Solution:
    'It' in statement D refers to the protest mentioned in statement B. Hence, BD is a mandatory pair. This eliminates option (d). C talks about the aim of this demonstration and hence should follow BD. EA is a pair that presents a contrast. E talks about preventing the march and A talks about being powerless to ban demonstrations. This makes option (a) the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 67 to 70: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider, but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income, uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores) are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

    The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation, intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans provide some form of informal care.
      Q.67 
    Which of the following would be the main reason why uninsured individuals would be unable to seek specialty medical services?
    a   They receive treatment only from community health centres that do not provide specialist services.
     They have to pay for specialty medical services out of their personal budget.
     They receive specialty medical care only when there is an emergency.
     As compared to insured individuals, they are made to pay more than the normal costs for medical care.
    Solution:
    The first paragraph discusses why an uninsured individual would be unable to seek out specialty medical services. The answer is given in the third sentence. It is clearly stated that an uninsured person seeks normal medical care usually from community health centers and if there is an emergency, then from hospital emergency rooms. However, for specialty medical care (not under an emergency), an uninsured person has to pay from his personal account (out-of-pocket costs). This makes option (b) the correct answer. Option (a) indicates that the only option for medical care for uninsured persons is community health centre, which is incorrect. Option (c) assumes that specialty medical care is required other than in an emergency. This is not supported by the passage. Option (d) cannot be inferred as the passage does not talk of a difference in the costs of medical services in case of insured and non-insured individuals. Additionally, there is no mention of specialty medical services in the option.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 67 to 70: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider, but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income, uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores) are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

    The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation, intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans provide some form of informal care.
      Q.68 
    From the passage, it can be inferred that
    a   insured individuals can seek treatment in a hospital by contacting their insurer first.
     an insurer cannot refuse the medical insurance claim of anyone who has been in an emergency.
     medical insurance helps an individual obtain primary as well as specialist care.
     a retail clinic can help an uninsured person obtain medical treatment.
    Solution:
    From the first paragraph, it can be inferred that medical treatment can be obtained by both an insured as well as an uninsured person. However, there are differences in the type of care that either category can receive. So, option (c) is the correct answer. The first two sentences of the passage state that insured individuals either may enter the health system through a primary care provider or may directly go to a specialist. Thus, option (a) is incorrect. The first paragraph only mentions that emergency departments of hospitals that receive payment from Medicare are not to refuse treatment to anyone. This does not imply that any insurer cannot refuse the medical claim of anyone who has undergone emergency care. Hence, option (b) is also incorrect. Option (d) is negated because the passage suggests that an uninsured person can get treatment for only minor medical conditions at retails clinics, and not just any medical treatment.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 67 to 70: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider, but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income, uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores) are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

    The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation, intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans provide some form of informal care.
      Q.69 
    It can be inferred from the passage that the shift of health services from inpatient to outpatient has been due to
    a   the increased availability of medicines and counselling services to help support the home medical care system.
     the availability of home medical care services for patients.
     the easy access to and affordability of home medical care professionals and services.
     the need to reduce the financial burden of patients, who don't need heightened care, on hospitals.
    Solution:
    The second paragraph states that the number of inpatients for acute-care and the number of discharges have reduced over the past decades. Now acute-care services are available at home. The increased availability of medicines has been linked with the predominant shift of mental health care from inpatient to outpatient. However, this is not the reason for the shift of all acute care services from inpatient to outpatient. So, option (a) is incorrect. Home medical care services have become available to patients. But this is also not the main reason why there was a decision to shift acute-care services to from inpatient to outpatient. So, option (b) is also negated. The easy access to and affordability of home medical care services has not been mentioned in the passage and hence one cannot infer that they exist. So, option (c) is also ruled out. The fourth sentence of the second paragraph provides the reason for why acute care services have predominantly shifted from inpatient to outpatient - the financial need of the hospitals. So, option (d) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 67 to 70: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider, but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income, uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores) are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

    The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation, intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans provide some form of informal care.
      Q.70 
    Which of the following options would correctly present the significance of the last sentence?
    a   It indicates a weakness in the argument presented by the author.
     It adds a supplementary point to the argument in the last paragraph.
     It provides an illustration that aims at highlighting the argument.
     It aims to fill in a gap in the reasoning presented in the last paragraph.
    Solution:
    The last few lines of the second paragraph discuss the growth in post acute-care services. The author goes on to discuss the fact that palliative care is received mostly through hospice service and these services have increased over time. The last sentence about the informal care giver is additional information on the argument that the author makes. It adds to the information on the increase in acute-care services from inpatient to outpatient and on the increase in post acute-care services. The last sentence states that the informal care giver plays an important role and then produces data to support this statement. This statement does not point out a weakness in the argument. Instead, it helps add an understanding on how the increase in post acute-care services has been supported by the role of the informal caregiver. So, option (a) is negated. The option correctly indicates that the last sentence brings in additional information to the argument. So, option (b) is the correct answer. Option (c) is negated because it does not illustrate a point that has already been made in the argument. Instead, it gives additional information. The gap in the argument could be filled in by an assumption. However, the last sentence is clearly not an assumption but a premise that helps supplement the argument. So, option (d) is also negated.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.71 
    Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   The victims, crammed into a sealed, coffin-like wooden case, squawked as they struggled to breathe.
     The hiss of gas, released by a red lever turned by Arie den Hertog in the back of his white van, signaled the start of the massacre.
     This is the most effective method of goose control.
     Then, after barely two minutes, they fell silent.
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is bad. These sentences talk of victims who are massacred by the use of poisonous gas. The victims in the given sentences could be geese but the method may be used for controlling the population of geese and not goose control.
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.72 
    Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   In the past, when confronting this subject, the justices have pondered the impact on children.
     The Supreme Court is set to issue a ruling soon that could make same-sex marriage legal in every state.
     In 2013, during oral arguments on same-sex marriage in California, Justice Anthony M. Kennedy wondered about the "some 40,000 children in California" who "live with same-sex parents."
     Advocates of gay marriage saw that as an opportunity to use the court's rulings to assert that marriage laws in other states were discriminatory.
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is bac. 'ac' is a mandatory sequence as option (a) talks of what was thought of as an impact of same-sex marriage in the past while option (c) gives a specific example of the same. Option (b) should precede the pair as it talks of the recent possibility of legalizing same-sex marriages while 'ac' talks of its effects. Option (d) is the odd one out because it talks of advocates of gay marriage seeing something as an opportunity, which is not mentioned in any of the given sentences.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.73 
    Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   Will he ever be normal again?
     Eventually he got into bed and kept eating until he became too heavy to get out.
     Bullied, sexually abused and unloved as a child, he said he dulled his feelings with more and more food.
     It took Mr. Mason a long time to get as fat as he was, and it has taken him a long time to try to shed all that weight and find a life approaching normalcy.
    Solution:
    The correct sequence dcb. 'cb' is a mandatory sequence because option (c) talks of the reason why Mr. Mason turned towards food while option (b) talks of the outcome of this reason. Between options (a) and (d), option (d) is more apt as it talks of the situation which is further explained in 'cb'. Option (a) is the odd one out because it contradicts the fact mentioned in option (d) i.e. his life is approaching normalcy.
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.74 
    Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   Nearly all of us are philosophers, because we have some kind of values by which we live our lives (or like to think we do, or feel uncomfortable when we don't).
     Perhaps we think there's a god who made it all, including us; or, on the contrary, we think it's all a matter of chance and natural selection.
     So, it is not wrong to say that philosophy is ubiquitous.
     And most of us favour some very general picture of what the world is like.
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is adb. Option (a) introduces the concept of almost of all of us being philosophers with some kind of values and option (d) carries the thought forward by mentioning that most of us favour a particular general picture of what our lives and the world is like. Option (b) talks of the reason behind this general picture, i.e. the common conception that either there is a God or everything that happens is a matter of change. Option (c) talks of a conclusion and none of the other given options justify this conclusion and hence, it is the odd one out.
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.75 
    Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

    A. The reader will notice that I haven't made any attempt to define philosophy,
    B. but had just implied that it is an extremely broad term covering a very wide range of intellectual activities.
    C. Some think that nothing is to be gained from trying to define it. 
    D. I can sympathize with that thought.
    a   Only B
     B and A
     A and C
     D and B
    Solution:
    In statement A, the author uses present perfect (haven't), but in statement B this changes to past perfect. The correct form should be 'have'. Hence the correct answer option is (a). Rest all the statements are correct.
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.76 
    Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

    A. Once, very long time ago, our ancestors were animals, and simply did
    B. whatever came naturally without noticing that that was what they were doing,
    C. or indeed without noticing that they did anything at all.
    D. Then, somehow, they acquired the capacities to ask why things happen.
    a   A and D
     B and C
     C and A
     B and D
    Solution:
    In A, article 'a' is missing before 'very long time'. In statement C, the sentence should read 'noticing that they were doing anything at all' in order to make it parallel with 'what they were doing'. Hence, correct answer is option (c).
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.77 
    Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then,choose the most appropriate option.

    A. Plato, who was born in or around 427 BC and died in 347 BC, was not the first important philosopher of ancient Greek civilization,
    B. but he is the first from whom a substantial body of complete works have come down to us.
    C. In the Indian tradition the Vedas, and many of the Upanishads are earlier;
    D. but of their authors, and how they were composed, we knew next to nothing.
    a   B and A
     B and D
     C and A
     A, B and C
    Solution:
    There is a subject-verb agreement error in B. The correct sentence should be 'whom a substantial body of complete works has come'. D should have 'know' instead of 'knew'. Hence, the correct answer is option (b).
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.78 
    The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

    Of all the family-newspaper-appropriate socioeconomic slurs, one that was ubiquitous in the 1980s and '90s is slowly on its way out in this millennium: yuppie. We have plenty of equivalents today, such as "This Is 40" (and nearly every other romantic comedy) and TV's "Togetherness" and the recently departed "Parenthood" and "How I Met Your Mother" (and most other dramedies and sitcoms). Their organic-buying, gym-going, homeowning characters, however, aren't tagged as yuppies as readily as those from the previous era were. It's not because they aren't from the narcissistic upper middle class; they certainly are. But they look different now.
    a   This millennium is characterized with money-obsessed trends of the 1980s.
     This millennium has a lot in common with the money-obsessed 1980s.
     This millennium saw a comeback of money-obsessed 1980s.
     This millennium is characterized by narcissistic upper middle class.
    Solution:
    The passage states that even though the narcissistic upper middle class exists, like it did in 80s and 90s, they look different and the term 'yuppie' is slowly losing its usage. So, option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) is ruled out because the passage does not talk of money-obsessed trends, in general, but only about the presence of 'yuppies'. Option (c) is negated because the passage does not talk of a decline and come-back of the narcissistic upper middle class. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage does not state that the narcissistic upper middle class characterizes this millennium.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.79 
    The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

    I was struck by not just the silicon valley's income disparity, but also by the lack of compassion that wealthy tech workers sometimes displayed toward the poor. Paul K. Piff, a professor of psychology and social behavior at the University of California, Irvine, believes all the money sloshing around the Valley could make some tech executives unaware of their surroundings. He has conducted several social experiments that consistently show that when people gain access to money, their empathy toward the less fortunate falls and, at the same time, their sense of entitlement and self-interest rises.
    a   Silicon Valley creates wealth at a staggering clip, but many of its companies' and executives' philanthropy has not kept pace.
     Silicon Valley exemplifies the assertion that access to money lowers the level of empathy with the poor.
     Silicon Valley is an apt example to prove that people who are rich do not empathize much with those that are poor.
     Silicon Valley has seen a steady increase in wealth and a steady decline in philanthropy.
    Solution:
    The passage talks of the situation at the Silicon Valley and the professor quotes that this situation is in line with the results of the various social experiments that he has conducted. So, we can conclude that Silicon Valley is just an example of the general trend in which too much access to money lowers the level of empathy with the poor. Options (a) and (d) are narrow in scope as they talk only about the example but not about the assertion made by the professor. Option (c) is ruled out because the author's opinion about the example is not mentioned. Hence, we cannot call it 'apt'. Moreover, the example only introduces the assertion but does not prove it.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.80 
    The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

    Turkish voters reasserted their commitment to democracy in Sunday's parliamentary elections. More than 86 percent of them cast ballots, a level of participation far above the 57 percent turnout posted by Americans in 2012. President Recep Tayyip Erdogan, an increasingly authoritarian leader was denied a parliamentary majority while voting in significant numbers for a party representing the Kurdish minority.
    a   Voters in the parliamentary elections do not want President Recep Tayyip Erdogan to come into power because of his authoritarian nature.
     Voters in the parliamentary elections came out in huge numbers to deny President Recep Tayyip Erdogan majority.
     A great turnout of voters in the recent parliamentary elections is a reassertion of their democratic status.
     Voters in Turkey do not want an authoritarian President.
    Solution:
    The passage focuses on two points: firstly, that a large number of voters cast ballots in Turkey and as a result the President was denied majority. Both these points are covered in option (b), making it the correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that the reason the President was denied majority was because of his authoritarian nature. Options (c) and (d) are narrow in scope.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.81 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    Isotopes of oxygen have a great advantage for scientists studying the shift in Earth's climate. Records of these isotopes in ocean sediments have established a strong connection between Earth's orbit and the periodicity of ice ages.

    Which of the following, if true, could be the reason(s) for the advantage mentioned in the passage?
    I. It is a global record as there is little variation in sedimentary specimens taken from different continents.
    II. The records have shown that fluctuations in global ice volume over the past thousands of years have a pattern.
    III. Isotope records are very accurate.
    a   Only II
     Only I & III
     I only
     III only
    Solution:
    Statement I suggests that wherever the records are made the results are nearly the same. This is an advantage. Statement II tells us one of the facts the records have established. It does not indicate any advantage in using these isotopes. Statement III is also an advantage as records in any kind of research should be as accurate as possible. Option (b) is therefore the best option.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.82 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows. 

    Problems of congestion on the roads can be tackled in a cost-effective manner by providing effective public transport system within the cities. A successful plan in this direction would reduce the number of private vehicles on the roads and would cost less than the costs involved in building fly overs to deal with the ever-expanding number of vehicles on the roads.

    Which of the following, if true, can be used to strengthen the above argument?
    a   A large number of cars on the roads belong to people who are traveling from one city to the other.
     More than half of the traffic on roads during peak hours belongs to office goers who travel at the same time every day and to the same destination. Such commuters would welcome a regular public transport system.
     An effective public transport system would entail a lot of spending in buying a new fleet of buses and their maintenance.
     Many jobs are coming up on the suburbs, making it necessary for people to travel to outside the city to reach their workplace.
    Solution:
    Options (a) and (d) suggest that offering transport within the city is not useful as most of the traffic on the roads involves traveling to other cities or to the outer limits of a city. Option (c) suggests a possible argument against implementing the system. Option (b) alone offers a strong reason that would attract people to such a system and is thus, the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.83 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    Government has recently imposed restrictions on import of raw material for garments. These restrictions are going to hit only the small manufacturers of garments. The bigger ones are going to benefit at their cost by taking away business from them. 

    If the following are true, which of them weakens the claim made above?
    a   Many other countries will follow suit and follow similar restrictions.
     Both, the small and the big manufacturers of garments, specialize in different kinds of products and hence none can benefit from the loss of the other.
     The small manufacturers already produce goods that are substandard.
     If the quality of the product is good, consumers will buy them even if the cost goes up after the restrictions.
    Solution:
    Option (a) just presents a consequence of the ban in other countries but does nothing that would cast a doubt on the claim made in the passage. Option (c) also talks about the quality of the goods manufactured but adds nothing to cast a doubt on the claim made in the passage. Option (d) states a fact without really going into how much the increase in the cost would be. Option (b) is the correct option as it states that both the manufacturers produce different kind of products, hence, one's loss cannot be another's gain.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.84 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows. 

    All the children who took special coaching for a month before their examination did well in the examinations. Thus the special attention these students got during the coaching had really helped them.

    Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above claim?
    a   The students who did well after the coaching were doing well even before they started taking the coaching.
     None of the students who did not take the coaching did as well as those who took the coaching.
     The children who took the coaching had to work very hard.
     The results of these children deteriorated as soon as the coaching was stopped.
    Solution:
    Options (b) and (d) support the claim that special coaching had improved the student's performance. Option (c) does not affect the claim and is ruled out. Option (a), if true, would weaken the claim as these students were doing well even before they took the coaching and hence, special coaching did nothing to improve their performance.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1 played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.
      Q.85 
    If there was no upset in the 1st and 3rd rounds and all matches in second round were upsets, the highest ranked player who could win the final was
    a   16
     24
     32
     None of these
    Solution:
    If all the matches were won by higher ranked player in the 1st round, top 32 ranked players must have advanced to the next round. And if all the matches in next round resulted in upsets, players ranked 17 to 32 must have advanced to the next round. So the highest rank player who could win the final was 17.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1 played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.
      Q.86 
    If the player ranked 54 reached the semifinals, which of the following ranked player could have won the tournament?
    a   22
     59
     38
     None of these
    Solution:
    He can meet player ranked 22 in 2nd round, and players ranked 59 and 38 in round 3. So they got eliminated before semifinal and could not reach the final.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1 played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.
      Q.87 
    If the player ranked 16 reached the semifinals, what was the minimum number of upsets in the tournament?
    a   2
     3
     4
     More than 4
    Solution:
    The number of upsets must have been minimum when only the matches involving player ranked 16 resulted in upsets. So he needed to upset the higher ranked players in 3rd round and Quarter finals.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1 played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.
      Q.88 
    If the winner, Federer, who was also the top ranked player, beats Berdych and Bhupathi in Quarterfinals and round 2 respectively, then what was the maximum possible sum of the ranks of Berdych and Bhupathi?
    a   72
     73
     90
     89
    Solution:
    The lowest ranked player with Federer could play in 2nd round was 33rd, and the lowest ranked player with he could play in quarter finals was ranked 57th. So the maximum possible sum will be 90.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on. The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and press the delivery button.

    Following information is also given:
    Turning on switches:
    I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi respectively.
      Q.89 
    One of the drinks which is dispensed by turning on switch 1 is
    a   Limca
     Coca-cola
     Mirinda
     7-up
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on. The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and press the delivery button.

    Following information is also given:
    Turning on switches:
    I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi respectively.
      Q.90 
    7-up is one of the drinks that is dispensed by turning on switch
    a   switch 1
     switch 2
     switch 3
     switch 4
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on. The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and press the delivery button.

    Following information is also given:
    Turning on switches:
    I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi respectively.
      Q.91 
    One of the drinks which is dispensed by turning on switch 2 is
    a   7-up
     Mirinda
     Limca
     Pepsi
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on. The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and press the delivery button.

    Following information is also given:
    Turning on switches:
    I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
    III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
    VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
    VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi respectively.
      Q.92 
    What drinks are dispensed by turning on switches 2 and 3?
    a   Mirinda, Limca and 7-up
     Pepsi, Limca and 7-up
     Coca-cola and Mirinda
     Coca-cola, Mirinda, Pepsi and 7-up
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:

    Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

    I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
    II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
    III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
    IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.
      Q.93 
    On which seat is Ajay sitting?
    a   2
     8
     7
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:

    Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

    I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
    II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
    III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
    IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.
      Q.94 
    If Rahul and Pooja are sitting on opposite sides, on which seat is Aish sitting?
    a   2
     3
     7
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:

    Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

    I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
    II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
    III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
    IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.
      Q.95 
    Who is sitting on seat number 8?
    a   Rahul
     Kaif
     Ajay
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:

    Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

    I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
    II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
    III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
    IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.
      Q.96 
    Which of the following pairs of persons can never sit adjacent to each other?
    a   Ajay and Aish
     Kaif and Pooja
     Ravi and Aish
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.
      Q.97 
    B wrote in
    a   Marathi
     Hindi
     Bengali
     Tamil
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.
      Q.98 
    Who was the Tamil writer?
    a   F
     E
     B
     A
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.
      Q.99 
    To which genre of literature did C contribute?
    a   Poetry
     Novel
     Drama
     All the three
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the 20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.
      Q.100 
    Who among the following belonged to 19th century?
    a   A
     B
     F
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

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