08.03.16

https://www.facebook.com/events/659346777537471/

TITA

1. (A) I doubt that anyone would seriously consider unfairness,
deceit, baseness, uselessness, mediocrity or degeneration to be a
solid foundation for lasting happiness and success.

(B) One way to quickly grasp the self-evident nature of principles is
to simply consider the absurdity of attempting to live an effective
life based on their opposites.

(C) Principles are not values: a gang of thieves can share values, but
they are in violation of the fundamental principles we're talking
about.

(D) They are essentially unarguable because they are self-evident.

(E) Fundamental principles are guidelines for human conduct that are
proven to have enduring, permanent value.


TITA

2. (A) If you were to show an engine or a mechanical drawing or
electronic schematic to a romantic it is unlikely he would see much of
interest in it.

(B) But if you were to show the same blueprint of schematic or give
the same description to a classical person he might look at it and
then become fascinated by it because he sees that within the lines and
shapes and symbols is a tremendous richness of underlying form.

(C) It has no appeal because the reality he sees is its surface. Dull,
complex lists of names, lines and numbers. Nothing interesting.

(D) A classical understanding sees the world primarily as underlying
form itself. A romantic understanding sees it primarily in terms of
immediate appearance.

(E) To summarize, the romantic mode is primarily inspirational,
imaginative, creative, intuitive where feelings rather than facts
predominate, the classic mode, by contrast, proceeds by reason and by
laws – which are themselves underlying forms of thought and behaviour.

(F) Human understanding can be divided into two kinds – classical
understanding and romantic understanding.



3.OMO
a)
A well branded and marketed business will lend itself more readily to
franchising and because many entrepreneurs seek out franchise
opportunities to leverage the equity of an established brand it is
important to create and refine branding before bringing franchisees on
board.
b)
If you own a franchise then branding is a strategic tool to attract
franchisees and expand the business.
c)
Considering branding at an early stage will also give you the
opportunity to establish structures and systems for the successful
implementation and management of branding as the franchise expands.
d)
By creating their own ad formats and marketing materials that deviate
from company branding they can undermine the value of the very brand
that attracted them to buy into the business in the first place.

4. OMO
a)
William Shakespeare was throughout his life greatly indebted to the
patronage and support of royal and noble personages; his royal patrons
were Queen Elizabeth and King James I, both of whom greatly loved the
drama.
b)
Shakespeare lived during a remarkable period of English history, a
time of relative political stability that followed and preceded eras
of extensive upheaval.
c)
Shakespeare was ardently attracted to Elizabeth and her Court, and
proved a faithful servant to his royal mistress and the first evidence
of this is in his fine eulogy of the virgin queen as "a fair vestal
throned by the west" in that most sweetly poetical early drama, A
Midsummer-Night's Dream.
d)
The virgin queen devoted herself to the study of the ancient classical
period, translating some of the tragedies of Euripides from the
original Greek for her amusement, using her influence in the progress
of the English drama, and fostering the inimitable genius of
Shakespeare.


5. OMO

a)
Rewards and punishments came down the hierarchy to the individual, so
that the individual, habitually looking upward at the next rung of the
hierarchical ladder, became conditioned to subservience.
b)
Thus: the wishy-washy organization man – the man without personal
convictions (or without the courage to make them evident). It paid to
conform.
c)
Three of the outstanding characteristics of bureaucracy were, as we
have seen, permanence, hierarchy, and a division of labor.

d)
Power-laden hierarchies, through which authority flowed, wielded the
whip by which the individual was held in line and the organization man
looked within for approval, knowing that his relationship with the
organization would be relatively permanent.

6.OMO
a)
Much that now strikes us as incomprehensible would be far less so if
we took a fresh look at the racing rate of change that makes reality
seem, sometimes, like a kaleidoscope, run wild.
b)
Instant celebrities are vicarious products who burst upon the
consciousness of millions like an image-bomb – which is exactly what
they are.
c)
In a society in which instant food, instant education and even instant
cities are everyday phenomena, no product is more swiftly fabricated
or more ruthlessly destroyed than the instant celebrity.
d)
Nations advancing toward super-industrialism sharply step up their
output of these "psycho-economic" products.

Summary

7. All states, all powers, that have held and hold rule over men have
been and are either republics or principalities. Those states which
when acquired to join to a state long held by the conqueror are either
hereditary, in which the family has been long established; or they are
new. But the difficulties occur in a new principality. And firstly, if
it be not entirely new, but is, as it were, a member of a state which,
taken collectively, may be called composite, the changes arise chiefly
from an inherent difficulty which there is in all new principalities;
for men change their rulers willingly, hoping to better themselves,
and this hope induces them to take up arms against him who rules:
wherein they are deceived, because they afterwards find by experience
they have gone from bad to worse. This follows also on another natural
and common necessity, which always causes a new prince to burden those
who have submitted to him with his soldiery and with infinite other
hardships which he must put upon his new acquisition. In this way you
have enemies in all those whom you have injured in seizing that
principality, and you are not able to keep those friends who put you
there because of your not being able to satisfy them in the way they
expected, and you cannot take strong measures against them, feeling
bound to them. For, although one may be very strong in armed forces,
yet in entering a province one has always need of the goodwill of the
natives.
a)
Principalities are either hereditary or new. There are fewer
difficulties in holding hereditary states, and those long accustomed
to the family of their prince, than new ones; for it is sufficient
only not to transgress the customs of one's ancestors, and to deal
prudently with circumstances as they arise.
b)
Since the hereditary prince doesn't have much reason to offend other
people, he will be loved. Unless he does something very horrible that
will make others hate him, it makes sense to expect that his subjects
will naturally be friendly/helpful with him. During his rule, the
actions that causes change are forgotten, since the effects of his
changes are left for another person to deal with.
c)
Principalities are hereditary, completely new or composite. In new
principalities only, the subjects change their rulers willingly by
taking up arms against him who rules. New princes acquire power and
more enemies are made than friends. They cannot meet the expectations
of their friends in the principalities resulting in overall
discontent.
d)
Principalities are either hereditary, in which the family has been
established; or they are new. The new are entirely new, or members
annexed to the hereditary state of the prince who has acquired them.
In a principality, even if not new, men would want to change their
rulers in the hope of bettering themselves and the new ruler or prince
would make enemies of people from whom he seized the principality and
also end up not satisfying his cronies, nor tackling troublesome ones
since their goodwill would always be of help.

Summary

8. The rise of a global language will have a huge impact on the world.
Ideas will be able to flow far more readily across the planet.
Billions of people will be influenced by the "best" ideas that the
planet has to offer. People's minds will be influenced powerfully, so
that today's nationalist mentalities will be gradually transformed
into tomorrow's globist mentalities. People will be able to compare
their own local customs with those of other cultures and reject their
own if they feel that other countries customs are superior to their
own. People will become more "multi" (i.e., multi-cultured) than
"mono" (i.e., mono-cultured). Multis will increasingly look down on
monos as inferior beings (rather like city-slickers towards
country-bumpkins), considering the monos to be limited as individuals
by the limitations of the single culture that programs them. Today's
governments will no longer be able to brainwash their citizens into
the ideologies of their nationalist leaders. Global education systems
("globiversities") will be established, to educate the poor people of
the world. Internet satellites will be able to beam down education
programs at all levels, from kindergarten to PhD level research
seminars on all topics.
a)
With a global language, the stage is set for global cultural
homogenization. Nationalist tendencies will melt down and humanity
will be pushed into a "globist mentality".
b)
Using the programs beamed down by the internet satellites, the poor
will be able to educate themselves and will have a global mindset.
Multiculturalism will replace monoculturalism and thence a global
language will heavily impact ideologies and people's minds.
c)
A global language will result in an easy flow of ideas across the
world. Parochial nationalist mentalities will give way to broader
globalist mentalities or ideologies. Global cultures will be compared
and integrated into the local culture making it multicultured. Global
education at all educational levels by globiversities through internet
satellites will prevail.
d)
Nationalist ideologies and monocultured way of life will not be strong
enough to counter the rise of global language which will positively
impact the world in terms of a free flow of ideas and a rejection of
local cultures.


SC Correct

9. (a) To be parochial on an astronomical scale sounds like tall
order. Yet people manage it all the time.

(b) When they think about the possibility of life in other parts of
the universe, they think of it happening on planets.

(c) But this is simply local prejudice. Moons, which Earthlings tend
merely to see as adornments to the night sky,

(d) are just so good a place to look for life as planets are, perhaps
even better. Which is why astronomers are trying to spot the moons of
planets around other stars.

(e) And life is just a part of it. To anyone not hung on hierarchies
of who-orbits-whom, moons are in all manner of ways more various and
more intriguing than planets.


SC Correct

10. (a) Like Robert Louis Stevenson I am a cartophiliac, and because
of Stevenson I am an islomaniac.

(b) Maps fire my mind because they offer "the magic of anticipation
without the toil and sweat of realisation".

(c) They give you seven-league boots, allowing you to cover miles in
seconds. On a map, visibility is always more perfect.

(d) Tracing the line of a walk with the point of a pencil, you can
float in gorges and marshes, leap cliff-faces at a single bound,

(e) and ford spatting rivers without getting wet. My father taught me
how to read maps, such that landscapes would rise magical out of them.


SC Correct

11. (a) In the spring and summer, bald eagles are fairly solitary and
each pair will defend their nest site from interlopers. During the
winter, however,

(b) birds will congregate wherever open water sources or food sources
such as carcasses of road-killed deer could be found.

(c) With its dark chocolate brown body and striking white head and
tail, it can be mistaken for the few other birds when its fully grown.
But did you know

(d) that it takes the bald eagle five years to grow into one with
distinctive plumage? And while the bald eagle is one of the largest
birds in North America, with a wingspan


(e) of about 6.5 feet and a height of about 2.5 feet only, it weighs
7-10 pounds – about as much as a housecat – and about 1.5 pounds of
the weight is just its feathers!


SC Correct

12. (a) In 2009, Rupert Murdoch called Google and other search engines
"content kleptomaniacs". Now cash-strapped newspapers want to put

(b) legal pressure on what they see as parasite news aggregators. Some
German newspaper executives say Google benefits from

(c) showcasing its material from search results on its news
aggregator, Google News. In Germany politicians are considering a bill
to extend

(d) copyright protection for excerpts of newspaper articles appearing
in search engines' results, thus enabling publishers to collect
payment for them.

(e) But Jan Malinowski, a media expert at the Council of Europe, says
trying to get Google paying for articles "is like trying to ban
Gutenberg's printing press in order to protect the scribes".

14.(a) On arrival at the hill, I examined the terrain and marked
several locations on my map as potential targets on trails the enemy
might use to assault our position.

(b) While people around the world waited for the far-away words "Eagle
has landed", I listened to the thundering boom of explosive mortar
shells detonating nearby and watched bright pink tracer bullets
suddenly streaking rat-a-tat across the night sky.

(c) Sometime after midnight my radio operator shook me awake, and
together we listened to the muffled whisper of a patrol leader
reporting "movement", meaning enemy soldiers might be approaching on
the trail guarded by his squad.

(d) As Neil Armstrong, Buzz Aldrin, and Mike Collins hurtled through
space towards mankind's first small steps on the surface of the moon
in July 1969, I crouched on the other side of the world in an isolated
outpost in South Vietnam.

(e) That night we sent out several small patrols to guard the pathways
and protect the hill from surprise attack.

(f) I had only recently arrived in-country as an untested, green
second lieutenant of artillery; the infantry company to which I was
assigned held a strategic hill along an enemy infiltration route
leading to the major city of Da Nang.
a)
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b)
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c)
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d)
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13.(a) So long as the society in which he is embedded is stable or
slowly changing, the images on which he bases his behavior can also
change slowly.

(b) No man's model of reality is a purely personal product; while some
of his images related to reality are based on firsthand observation,
an increasing proportion of them today are based on messages beamed to
us by the mass media and the people around us.

(c) His model must be updated. To the degree that it lags, his
responses to change become inappropriate; he becomes increasingly
thwarted, ineffective.

(d) If society itself were standing still, there might be little
pressure on the individual to update his own supply of images, to
bring them in line with the latest knowledge available in the society.

(e) Thus there is intense pressure on the individual to keep up with
the generalized pace.

(f) But to function in a fast changing society, to cope with swift and
complex change, the individual must turn over his own stock of images
at a rate that in some way correlates with the pace of change.
a)
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b)
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c)
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d)
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15.Mercury's bleak, airless surface is similar to the moon's, so
scientists have long been puzzled why the planet reflects so much less
light than our lunar satellite. On average, material blasted across
Mercury's surface by relatively recent impacts of comets, asteroids,
and other small bodies reflects only two-thirds as much light as
freshly excavated material on the moon, previous studies have shown.
One of the prime explanations for this low reflectivity – an abundance
of minerals including the element iron, which strongly absorb certain
wavelengths of light falling upon them—doesn't fit in this instance,
researchers say. That's because Mercury's brightness at one particular
wavelength suggests that there's less than 3% iron in its surface
rocks. Now, a team suggests the blame lies with another element
entirely – carbon. Comets, which by some estimates are about 18%
carbon by weight, are a major source of the element. Buta much larger
source may be a persistent pummelling by tiny carbon-rich meteorites,
which strike Mercury about fifty times more often than they do the
moon.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above paragraph?
a)
The large number of collisions of comets with Mercury is the most
significant reason for the presence of high carbon content on the
surface rocks of Mercury.
b)
The low reflectivity of the surface of Mercury is primarily due to the
presence of iron.
c)
The amount of carbon present on the surface of the moon is two-thirds
the amount of carbon present on the surface of Mercury.
d)
The surface of Mercury is most likely covered with significant amounts
of carbon.


16.The problem with election campaigns – the really deep problem, I
mean, behind all the superficial ones, such as not being able to avoid
regularly viewing images of David Cameron's face – is that voters want
impossible combinations of things. Even when a democratic system isn't
corrupted by big business or a partisan press; even when voters don't
believe wildly inaccurate things about the scale of immigration, or
the size of foreign aid; even when the politicians involved aren't
scoundrels whose very hunger for power means they're precisely the
kind of people who shouldn't get anywhere near it… even in such
perfect conditions, voters would still want both a) great public
services and b) not to have to pay for them. Or more houses, but also
no building on the green belt. Or economic growth, without the
environmental consequences. Or super-strict border controls, and also
plentiful cheap foreign labour. And when voters demand the impossible,
it's a rare politician who can resist responding, "Why, certainly!"

Which of the following cannot be understood to be an opinion of the
author according to the passage?
a)
The biased press and the involvement of large corporations has
polluted the democratic system of the country.
b)
That good public services can be provided without charging the public
for them is a reasonable expectation from a government.
c)
Voters are naïve enough to expect outrageous promises from politicians
and usually do not understand the trade-off between various
combinations of things.
d)
Power hungry people are not suitable for politics and should stay away from it.


17.Evidence is growing that conservation – enforced by the creation of
protected areas and policed by anti-poaching squads – leads to the
eviction and abuse of vast numbers of people, especially tribal
peoples, and is also failing to check the deepening environmental
crisis. A new approach is urgently needed.

Tribal peoples are better at looking after their environments than
anyone else – their survival depends on it. When the Maasai were
removed from Ngorongoro Crater in Tanzania in 1974, poaching
increased; the eviction of indigenous people from Yellowstone Park in
the United States in the late 19th century led to overgrazing by elk
and bison… the list goes on. There is a simple reason for this: tribal
peoples have managed, protected, nurtured and shaped their land for
generations. They, more than anyone, have the best knowledge and
motivation to protect their land.

Which of the following statements, if true, supports the argument
presented in the excerpt above?
a)
The traditions of indigenous people include frugality in the use of
the resources.
b)
The Maasai regularly received kick-backs from the poachers in
Ngorongoro and their removal from the crater made poaching there more
profitable.
c)
The increasing population of the tribal peoples has escalated the
strain on the resources in their environment.
d)
Tribal herdsman in Africa regularly set fires to promote the growth of
new shoots of fodder for their starved livestock, thereby causing soil
erosion.

18.Famine seems to be the last, the most dreadful resource of nature.
The power of population is so superior to the power in the earth to
produce subsistence for man that premature death must in some shape or
other visit the human race. The vices of mankind are active and able
ministers of depopulation. They are the precursors in the great army
of destruction; and often finish the dreadful work themselves. But
should they fail in this war of extermination, sickly seasons,
epidemics, pestilence, and plague, advance in terrific array, and
sweep off their thousands and ten thousands. Should success be still
incomplete, gigantic inevitable famine stalks in the rear, and with
one mighty blow levels the population with the food of the world. Must
it not then be acknowledged by an attentive examiner of the histories
of mankind, that in every age and in every state in which man had
existed, or does now exist, that the increase of population is
necessarily limited by the means of subsistence.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
a)
Human population is immensely more powerful than nature and has the
power to withstand any natural calamity.
b)
If mankind is able to successfully reduce their population by
themselves, it will prevent the occurrence of sickly seasons,
epidemics, pestilence and plague.
c)
The war of extermination is the struggle between nature and humans, in
which humans usually prevail.
d)
The population of humans could increase when they are able to utilize
available resources more efficiently or when they discover new
resources.


#RC

It has not yet been possible to measure the gravitational waves
predicted by Einstein's theory of general relativity. They are so weak
that they get lost in the noise of the measurements. But thanks to the
latest simulations of the merging of binary neutron star systems, the
structure of the sought-after signals is now known. As a team of
German and Japanese theoretical astrophysicists reports in the
Editor's Choice of the current edition of the scientific journal
Physical Review D, gravitational waves have a characteristic spectrum
that is similar to the spectral lines of atoms.

Gravitational waves are generated when masses accelerate. The first
indirect evidence for their existence was detected in 1974 when the
binary pulsar PSR B1913+16 was discovered in the constellation Aquila.
Russell A. Hulse and Joseph H. Taylor received the 1993 Nobel Prize in
Physics for this discovery. The two rapidly rotating neutron stars are
drifting towards each other in a spiral shape, which is why,
astrophysicists explain, they are losing energy and emitting
gravitational waves. In the meantime, there are now several
large-scale experiments underway for detecting gravitational waves:
the American LIGO experiment, the European Virgo experiment, and the
Japanese KAGRA detector. Experts estimate that signals of
gravitational waves from merging binary neutron star systems will be
detected within the next five years.

"These signals are not easy to detect, because they have an extremely
small amplitude."But despite these difficult conditions, it is
possible to find them, if you know what to look for in advance,"
explained Professor Luciano Rezzolla from the Institute for
Theoretical Physics at Goethe University. Together with a Japanese
colleague from Osaka University, he has studied a number of binary
neutron star systems with the help of the latest simulation techniques
and has discovered that the merging of the stars generates
characteristic gravitational wave spectra. "These spectra correspond,
at least logically, to the electromagnetic spectral lines emitted by
atoms or molecules. From these we can derive information on the
characteristics of the stars," explains Rezzolla.

As the astrophysicists show in two publications with related content
in Physical Review Letters (November 2014) and in the current edition
of Physical Review D, the gravitational waves spectrum is like a
fingerprint for the two stars. If scientists learn how to interpret
these spectra, they will know what the neutron stars are made of and
will be able to determine what their equation of state is, which is so
far unknown. Equations of state describe the thermodynamic properties
of systems as a function of variables, such as pressure, temperature,
volume, or particle number. To this Rezzolla adds: "This is a very
exciting possibility, because then we would be able to solve a riddle
that has remained unsolved for 40 years."

"If the signal is strong and thus the fingerprint is very clear, even
a single measurement would be sufficient," Rezzolla predicts. "The
prospects of solving the riddle of neutron stars have never been this
good. The gravitational waves that we hope to detect in a few years
are already on their way from the farthest reaches of the universe."




19. According to the passage, the simulations studying the merging of
binary neutron stars have contributed to the study of gravitational
waves by
a)
measuring the gravitational waves predicted by Einstein's theory of
general relativity.
b)
enabling scientists to determine the equation of state of such stars.
c)
providing a reference that will help identify the otherwise
indiscernible gravitational waves.
d)
revealing that gravitational waves have spectra similar to atomic spectra.

20. According to the passage, "Experts estimate that signals of
gravitational waves from merging binary neutron star systems will be
detected within the next five years." Which of the following can be
inferred to be the most apposite reason for the delay – of at most
five years – in detecting the signals of gravitational waves?
a)
The level of science and technological setup available for detecting
the signals of gravitational waves is not adequate in its current
state.
b)
The amplitude of the gravitational waves being emitted by the neutron
stars is expected to gradually increase to a detectable level over the
next five years.
c)
The signals of the gravitational waves are not usually strong but
latest simulations of merging binary neutron stars by astrophysicists
have shown that a strong signal will be emitted within the next five
years.
d)
The binary neutron star systems which are a source of gravitational
waves are at least five light years away from earth.

21. After reading the passage, it may be concluded with certainty that
gravitational waves are generated as a result of the merging of two
a)
rapidly rotating stars that are spiralling towards each other.
b)
neutron stars which are part of a binary neutron star system. Your
answer is correct
c)
binary neutron star systems.
d)
stars which are part of a binary star system.


22. According to the passage, which of the following is the reason
that led to Russell A. Hulse and Joseph H. Taylor winning the 1993
Nobel Prize in Physics?
a)
For the explanation of why two rapidly rotating neutron stars emit
gravitational waves.
b)
For the discovery of binary pulsar PSR B1913+16 in the constellation Aquila.
c)
For identifying the spiral structure of binary neutron stars.
d)
For discovering that gravitational waves are generated when masses accelerate.


#RC

The neologisms 'emic' and 'etic' derive from analogy with the terms
'phonemic' and 'phonetic.' They were coined by the American linguistic
anthropologist Kenneth Pike (1954), who suggested that there are two
approaches to the study of a society's cultural system, just as there
are two approaches to the study of a language's sound system. In both
cases, the analyst can take the point of view of either the insider or
the outsider.

As Pike puts it, the emic approach focuses on cultural distinctions
meaningful to the members of a given society (for example, whether
their culture distinguishes between the natural world and the
supernatural realm). Only the native members of a culture can judge
the validity of an emic description, just as only the native speakers
of a language can judge the accuracy of a phonemic identification.

The etic approach, again as Pike defines it, examines the extrinsic
concepts and categories meaningful to scientific observers (for
example, per capita energy consumption). Only scientists can judge the
validity of an etic account, just as only linguists can judge the
accuracy of a phonetic transcription. British anthropology's etic
perspective, developed between 1850 and 1870 by Lewis H. Morgan,
Edward B. Taylor and then James G. Frazer, was based on the so-called
'comparative method.' Criticisms were brought against this cognitive
style – which opened the way for participant observation (in which a
culture is studied from the perspective of a native) – in Britain by
Radcliffe-Brown and Malinowski, and in America by the German
ethnologist Franz Boas (1858–1942), who had emigrated to the United
States. Boas, the founder of cultural anthropology, criticized the
work of Frazer on the grounds that it focused only on certain aspects
of the societies studied, atomizing them and separating them from the
global context. Boas' ethnographic fieldwork conducted after 1880,
first among the Kwakiutl Indians of Vancouver Island in the Pacific
Ocean and then among the Eskimos, profoundly influenced Robert E. Park
and the early period of the Chicago School.

Outstanding representatives of the new methodological climate brought
about by the ethnographic 'turn' were two American anthropologists of
a psychological bent who had received their training from Boas:
Margaret Mead (1901–78) and Ruth Benedict (1887–1948). In contrast to
the atomistic approach of their British colleagues – who still adhered
to a colonial perspective and sought to analyse the function performed
by a particular cultural element (a custom, a belief, a ritual or a
myth, for example) within a society – Mead and Benedict adopted a
holistic approach which conceived a culture as a complex and
integrated system constructed around a dominant theme which
characterized and distinguished one society from another. Mead (1935)
lived for two years among the three peoples of New Guinea (the
Arapesh, Mundugumor and Tchambuli), studying how their different
societies produced differences of 'temperament', that is, differences
in innate individual qualities. Benedict (1934) conducted fieldwork
among the Pueblos Indians of New Mexico, the Dobu living on the island
of the same name off the south-western tip of New Guinea, and the
Kwakiutl Indians, as her teacher Boas had done.

Today most cultural anthropologists agree that anthropological
research should gather both emic and etic knowledge. Emic knowledge is
essential for the intuitive and empathic understanding of a culture,
and also for conducting effective ethnographic fieldwork. Moreover,
emic knowledge is often a valuable source of etic hypotheses. Etic
knowledge, on the other hand, is essential for cross-cultural
comparison. It is indispensable for ethnology, because comparison
necessarily requires standard units and categories.




23. The "ethnographic 'turn'" mentioned in the passage most likely refers to
a)
the ethnographic fieldwork conducted by Franz Boas among Kwakiutl
Indians and Eskimos.
b)
the emic approach gaining prominence in anthropological research.
c)
the increase in criticism of the comparative method.
d)
the approach involving the compartmentalization of various cultures

24. Which of the following studies could most likely have used an etic approach?
a)
Testing the Effect of Risk on Inter temporal Choice in the Chinese
Cultural Context.
b)
The importance of cattle in the Swazi culture.
c)
The Variation in the Development of a Distinctive Identity across
Chinese, Japanese and European cultures.
d)
Constructing Maternal Knowledge Framework in the Nahua tribe.

25. Which of the following statements aptly describes the role of emic
and etic approaches in anthropological research?
a)
Emic approach is primarily used to understand the function of cultural
elements within a local society, whereas etic approach is primarily
used to understand the impact of a society's cultural elements on
other societies.
b)
Emic approach is used to understand advanced cultural systems, whereas
etic approach is used to compare different but relatively primitive
cultures using extrinsic categories.
c)
Emic approach provides information which acts as a source of etic
hypothesis and such information has little value without an etic
approach.
d)
Emic approach is used to observe and understand a culture from within
the culture itself where everything is in context and etic approach
describes cultural elements in constructs that apply across cultures.


26. Who among the following most likely would not have been influenced
by the emic approach promoted by the founder of cultural anthropology?
a)
Robert E. Park
b)
Margaret Mead
c)
Ruth Benedict
d)
Malinowski

#RC

Scientists have come across a potential game-changer in the fight
against drug-resistant superbugs – a new class of antibiotic that is
resistant to resistance. Not only does the new compound – which comes
from soil bacteria – kill deadly superbugs like Methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), but also – because of the way it
destroys their cell wall – the pathogens will find it very difficult
to mutate into resistant strains.

Many of the antibiotics in use today were discovered decades ago, and
since then, microbes have evolved into resistant strains that do not
succumb to them. For instance, according to the World Health
Organization (WHO), in 2012, there were about 450,000 new cases of
multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) worldwide. And extensively
drug-resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) has been identified in 92
countries. Bacteria that cause common infections such as urinary tract
infections, pneumonia, bloodstream infections, are also becoming
increasingly resistant and hard to treat. For instance, a high
percentage of hospital-acquired infections are caused by a highly
resistant form of Staph – MRSA. This alarming scenario – coupled with
the fact that there are hardly any new antibiotics in the pipeline –
led the WHO recently to warn we are approaching a "post-antibiotic
era" where people could die from ordinary infections and minor
injuries.

Most of the antibiotics used in human and animal medicine today come
from soil microbes – for millions of years they have been producing
toxic compounds to fight off other enemy microbes. For example
penicillin, the first successful antibiotic, comes from the soil
fungus Penicillium. But there is a major problem with researching soil
microbes – they are very difficult to culture in the lab. This means
that as many as 99% of the microbes on our planet remain
under-researched as sources of new antibiotics because they refuse to
grow in lab cultures. That is until now.

Prof. Kim Lewis, a microbiologist and professor at Northeastern
University in Boston, MA, and colleagues developed a way to culture
bacteria in their natural environment. This uses a device that they
call a "diffusion chamber" where the soil microbes they want to grow
are separated into individual chambers sandwiched between two
semi-permeable membranes. They then bury the device back in the soil.

Thus, through the semi-permeable membranes, the bacteria become
exposed to the highly complex mix of other microbes and compounds of
the soil, and grow readily as if they were in the soil. This way, the
researchers produced bacterial colonies large enough to research back
in the lab. By repeatedly using the diffusion chamber to culture
different species of soil bacteria, the team tested about 10,000
bacterial colonies to see if any produced compounds that could stop
the growth of S. aureus. They found 25 potential antibiotics, of which
one, teixobactin, appeared the most powerful. In the lab, teixobactin,
killed a broad range of pathogenic bacteria, including the
drug-resistant superbugs MRSA and VRE (vancomycin resistant
enterococci). Further tests in mice showed promising results against
bacteria that cause septicemia, skin and lung infections. Teixobactin
breaks down the bacterial cell wall – the pathogen's key defence
against attack. The researchers believe this means the microbe can
mutate all it likes, but its cell walls will always be its Achilles
heel. Prof. Lewis says, "Teixobactin's dual mode of action and binding
to non-peptidic regions of the cell walls suggest that resistance will
be very difficult to develop." He and his colleagues found that
repeated exposure to the drug did not produce any resistant mutations
in Staphylococcus aureus or Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacterium
that causes most cases of TB. They conclude: "The properties of this
compound suggest a path towards developing antibiotics that are likely
to avoid development of resistance."

27. According to the passage, how does the new compound deter the
development of drug resistant mutations of pathogens?
a)
The new compound breaks down the cell walls of a pathogen, resulting
in any subsequent mutations of the pathogen having impaired cell
walls.
b)
The new compound damages the cell walls of a pathogen, inhibiting
further mutations of the pathogen.
c)
The new compound destroys the cell walls of a pathogen and also the
cell walls of almost any subsequent mutations of the pathogen.
d)
The new compound binds to the non-peptidic regions of the cell walls
of a pathogen, preventing the pathogen from mutating.

28. In the light of the facts presented in the passage, which of the
following statements, if true, would most support Prof. Lewis's claim
that "resistance will be very difficult to develop"?
a)
Antibiotics that bind to the non-peptidic regions of the cell walls of
pathogens are very rare in nature and extremely difficult to develop
in a laboratory.
b)
The non-peptidic regions of cell walls are the weakest part of any cell wall.
c)
Antibiotics that break down bacterial cell walls can be used to fight
different types of bacteria.
d)
The non-peptidic regions of cell walls consist of lipids and lipid
mutations in cells are extremely rare.


29. According to the passage, which of the following circumstances
have induced WHO to warn that "we are approaching a post-antibiotic
era"?


Identify all that apply, and enter the corresponding letters (in
alphabetical order and in upper case) in the input box given below.



For example, if you think (B) and (D) apply, then enter BD (but not DB
or bd) in the input box.



(a) Various pathogens are developing resistance to antibiotics
resulting in drug resistant mutations.

(b) The antibiotics used for treating various bacterial diseases were
discovered decades ago.

(c) Health care institutions are reluctant to administer new
antibiotics since it can result in pathogens developing further drug
resistance.

(d) Research institutions are not able to develop new antibiotics
because they are very difficult to culture in the laboratory.


30. Which of the following statements best explains the manner in
which the "diffusion chamber", used by Prof. Kim Lewis and colleagues,
overcomes the shortcoming(s) in the existing approach to culture of
soil microbes?
a)
The diffusion chamber contains a complex mix of microbes and compounds
naturally found in the soil, enabling the culture of soil microbes.
Your answer is incorrect
b)
The diffusion chamber provides the soil microbes with an environment
similar to their natural environment, making it possible to culture
soil microbes in the lab.
c)
The semi permeable membrane of the diffusion chamber allows the
exposure of soil microbes to the complex mix of microbes and compounds
found naturally in the soil.
d)
The semi permeable membrane of the diffusion chamber accelerates the
growth of soil microbes because it contains various compounds
necessary for their growth.


#RC

The evolution of sociality among previously non-social entities has
been identified as a major transition in the history of life. An
evolutionary explanation of the emergence of sociality requires to
recognize the selective advantages that a single individual can obtain
by staying in a group or, to say it better, the selective advantages
that being a member of a social group give to an individual, compared
to being a solitary part of a collection of non-related entities.

Here we concentrate on one of those possible advantages, namely the
fact that individuals who live in a group can exploit other
individuals of the same group (co-groupers) as a reliable source of
information about the environment. From the point of view of a social
animal, the other animals that live in the same group share one
obvious characteristic: they are alive. Thus, they will behave, on
average, in an adaptive manner and their behaviour will be
specifically tuned for the environment in which they are living.

From an ethological perspective, the modification of behaviour during
lifetime, by exploiting the interactions with co-groupers, is a useful
definition of what is called social learning.

Human beings heavily rely on social learning for the development of
their behavioural repertoire and they are likely to be the only
species that makes an extensive use of cognitively advanced forms of
social learning, that require both the explicit copy of the results
and actions performed by a model and an active role of the model in
the transmission of information, such as teaching; forms of teaching
have been observed also in other species, even in ants, but the issue
of teaching among other species other than humans remains still
controversial.

Nevertheless, especially in the last twenty years, researches in
animal behaviour have shown how social learning can be significant for
the development of complex behavioural skills in primates and in other
vertebrates like rats, birds, and fish. In addition, even if social
learning studies have been almost entirely focused on vertebrates,
several pieces of evidence indicate that forms of social learning are
also present in insects.

Those ethological findings, taken together, suggest two
considerations. Even if it is likely that the role played by social
learning among human beings is greater than the role it plays among
other species, although the mechanisms that permit the relative
stability of cultural patterns and support cumulative cultural
evolution in human groups still remain not clear, social learning does
not seem restricted to human beings. Hence, the selective advantage of
living in a social group, because of social learning, can be more
pervasive than generally thought.

Besides, the social transmission of behaviours in species different
than humans is often realized without the need of complex cognitive
machineries, but by simple processes that exploit the dynamics between
learning at the individual level, the characteristics of the
environment and of the population, and the genetic evolution at
population level, without an easy-to-trace distinction between
processes.




31. What can be inferred from the phrase "the explicit copy of the
results and actions performed by a model" with regards to social
learning in humans?
a)
Human beings learn behavioural skills from a single archetype which
ensures the replication of such skills across generations.
b)
Human beings learn by mirroring other individuals which results in the
development of behavioural skills.
c)
Human beings teach other individuals behavioural skills which results
in the propagation of selective advantage to all the individuals in a
group.
d)
Human beings use a standard model to impart knowledge to other
individuals in a group.

32. Which of the following situations is least suitable to be used as
an illustration of social learning?
a)
An infant learns to protrude its tongue by watching adults perform the
same task.
b)
Young monkeys witness the fear of snakes in their parents and learn to
fear snakes.
c)
Red squirrels are more successful at opening nuts after observing an
experienced individual.
d)
A pigeon assesses a quality of a neighbourhood and decides on a nesting place.



33. According to the passage, which of the following statements is
definitely true regarding social learning in insects?
a)
In various species of insects, experienced individuals teach other
younger individuals which provides an advantage in the survival of the
younger individuals.
b)
Social learning in insects do not utilize any complex cognitive
machineries as opposed to other vertebrates.
c)
Social learning in insects is understood only to the limited extent
that they learn from other individuals in their group.
d)
Insects can mimic behaviour of other species and learn from these species.


34. Based on the passage, which of the following statements can be
inferred about the evolution and propagation of culture among humans?
a)
Cultural propagation in humans through complex cognitive mechanisms is
only one example among several other parallel instances extant in
various other species.
b)
The evolution of culture in humans is more dependent on social
learning than on any other factor.
c)
Even though social learning plays a significant role in evolution of
culture among humans, the mechanism through which this occurs is
nebulous.
d)
Social learning plays an equally important part in various other
species in addition to human beings for cultural evolution and
propagation.

07.03 .16

https://www.facebook.com/events/472091632996495/

OMO

1.
a)
Damascus has so far fared relatively well compared with Aleppo, where
restored souks and grand mosques have been reduced to rubble.
b)
On December 2nd, a mortar bomb landed beside the Omayad Mosque in
Damascus, the fourth holiest site in Islam and Krak des Chevaliers, a
Crusader outpost in the country's centre that T.E. Lawrence called
"the most wholly admirable castle in the world", suffered air strikes
in the summer.
c)
That comment may still be true, but the city's monuments are suffering.
d)
Mark Twain described Damascus, Syria's capital, as immortal. "She has
looked upon the dry bones of a thousand empires and will see the tombs
of a thousand more before she dies."



OMO

2.
a)
On the face of it, "Grand Theft Auto V", a video game released on
September 17th, is not obviously British.
b)
Yet play for a while and distinctively British humour comes through
and casual violence aside, the game's beauty is that it is a
particularly British parody of America.
c)
Its setting is a fictionalised Los Angeles; its (anti) heroes a trio
of American gangsters.
d)
Beneath the hype Britain's video-game industry is a shadow of what it
once was; the two main consoles – the Xbox 360 and the PlayStation 3 –
are both reaching the end of their life cycles.

TITA

3. (A) The latest shows a rabble of angry cavemen charging repeatedly
out of their caves only to be mown down by machine guns or blown up by
bombs while Western and Arab spectators look on nonchalantly.

(B) A character holding a Russian flag appears and hands the empty
poison canister to the applauding onlookers; the cavemen protest but
the slaughter resumes, now with bullets and bombs.

(C) It has since gained fame as a scruffy Hollywood-in-a-bomb-shelter,
turning out satirical videos about the war.

(D) When, after a third charge, these "savages" drop dead from a
chemical spray, the audience objects.

(E) For now at least, this seems a fairly accurate portrayal of how
things are going in Syria.

(F) Kafr Nabl, a small town in north-west Syria, fell under rebel
control early in the 30-month civil war.


4.(a) When they had got over the shock of their rapid and humiliating
military defeat, the Parisians noted that their occupiers were not, as
they had feared, brutal, rude or monstrous; on the contrary, they gave
up their seats to elderly women, opened doors and handed out sweets.

(b) In the summer of 1940, Johann was among the second wave of German
soldiers, as part of the auxiliary forces of the German Wehrmacht –
which consisted of the Heer (army), the Kriegsmarine (navy) and the
Luftwaffe (air force) – to reach Paris.

(c) Inspite of the sense of foreboding and possible shortages which
had left the the city and its inhabitants somewhat shabby and muted,
the Parisians did behave in a civilized way and the civility was much
appreciated.

(d) The May invasion of France had brought fighting troops, tall, fit,
healthy-looking men, goose-stepping victoriously down the
Champs-Elysées in their magnificent leather boots and grey-green
uniforms.

(e) They were, the occupied told one another, perfectly "correct".

(f) And though in their wake had come the shadowy and sinister forces
of the Gestapo, General von Stülpnagel, military governor of Paris,
had made it clear to his men that they must behave in a civilised
manner.
a)
dbfcea
b)
dbaefc
c)
bdfcae
d)
bfdaec

SUMMARY

5. In the past, when a technology revolution threatened the wholesale
loss of jobs in an economic sector, a new sector emerged to absorb the
surplus labor. Earlier in the century, the fledgling manufacturing
sector was able to absorb many of the millions of farmhands and farm
owners who were displaced by the rapid mechanization of agriculture.
Between the mid-1950s and the early 1980s, the fast-growing service
sector was able to re-employ many of the blue collar workers displaced
by automation. Today, however, as all these sectors fall victim to
rapid restructuring and automation, no "significant" new sector has
developed to absorb the millions who are being displaced. The only new
sector on the horizon is the knowledge sector, an elite group of
industries and professional disciplines responsible for ushering in
the new high-tech automated economy of the future. The new
professionals – the so-called symbolic analysts or knowledge workers –
come from the fields of science, engineering, management, consultancy,
teaching, marketing, media, and entertainment. While their numbers
will continue to grow, they will remain small compared to the number
of workers displaced by the new generation of "thinking machines".
a)
In the past, workers in different sectors were interchangeable. Today,
the new technological revolution involving the application of genetic
engineering to agriculture, of robotization to manufacturing, and of
computerization of service industries will lead to new employment
opportunities if there is a well trained workforce available to
respond to the challenges of the "information age."
b)
In the past, workers in different sectors were interchangeable.
Technological change is the autonomous moving spirit that transforms
one stage to another until it comes to a catastrophic halt in the
present "service stage" of history beyond which there is no other
sector to absorb displaced workers. The knowledge sector proves to be
the only exception to the rule.
c)
Throughout history, job loss in a particular sector was mitigated by
absorption of labour in other sectors. But today, no "significant" new
sector has developed to absorb the "displaced millions" from
agriculture, manufacturing and service industries. The new kid on the
block is the knowledge sector with professionals from various fields
but their numbers will be small compared to the numbers displaced by
restructuring and automation. Your answer is correct
d)
The increasing automation of production, manufacturing and services
will eliminate the worker totally unless the worker keeps up with the
times and becomes a knowledge worker. Consequently there will be a
huge unemployment problem when the last service worker is replaced by
the latest ATM, virtual office machine, or heretofore unconceived
application of technology.

SUMMARY

6. A visit to a public hospital in any Indian city is not for the
faint-hearted. Healing is very clearly not a high priority, indeed it
would be impossible in the appallingly unhygienic conditions in most
of them. Though we have become inured to the lax standards in hospital
management, the recent report that a certain quantity of radioactive
material is missing from a Hyderabad hospital since the end of April
is chilling. This apathy extends to all hospital procedures, the most
worrying being waste disposal. The June 30, 2015 deadline set by the
Central Pollution Board for all big hospitals to put in place
effective waste management systems has, predictably, been ignored.
Today, open waste dumps behind all major public hospitals have become
a source of infection both to patients and staff. It is not uncommon
to see animals dragging away pieces of waste into neighbouring
residential localities. The courts have done their bit, repeatedly
directing hospitals to install incinerators. But rather than make a
one-time investment which would be in the public good, most prefer to
get rid of their waste in dangerous and unscientific ways – among them
being burning it in the open. This is done in the full knowledge that
hospital waste when burnt emits highly toxic substances like mercury
and dioxins which are potentially fatal to persons in the vicinity.
a)
The public hospitals in India are in a pitiable state. The management
is careless in public hospitals. A visit to a public hospital in any
Indian city is not for the faint-hearted.
b)
The number of public hospitals in India has increased phenomenally in
the past six months but the conditions are unhygienic and the
standards need improvement. Even though incinerators have been
installed, the hospital management continues to burn hospital waste in
the open.
c)
You have to kill all your emotions before you visit an Indian public
hospital. Unhygienic environments and apathetic officials are the
least of the problems as waste disposal has been completely ignored.
Waste when piled on the streets spreads infection and when burnt emits
toxic substances.
d)
One has to have a heart of steel to be able to visit an Indian public
hospital. The conditions are unhygienic, the standards are lax and
recently there was also an appalling case of missing radioactive
material. Effective waste management has not been enforced. So open
waste dumps are a major source of infections. Though courts have
directed public hospitals to install incinerators, hospitals dispose
of waste in unhealthy ways including burning the waste in the open.


7.OMO
a)
That makes it tempting to offer sneak peeks of the most flattering
ones, as Brazil's president, Dilma Rousseff, did recently when she
told El País, a Spanish newspaper, that a forthcoming statistical
revision would raise economic growth in 2014 from 0.9% to a less weak
1.5%.
b)
Rating agencies have said that without a change of course the country
risks being downgraded from its current position, a notch above the
lowest investment grade.
c)
A single economic figure can boost or batter a politician's standing.
d)
Nemesis is rarely so swift: on December 3rd the national statistics
institute said that it had indeed revised the 2014 figure up, but only
to 1% and it announced that GDP shrank by 0.5% in the third quarter
compared with the previous three months.

8.OMO
a)
I was a child of rationing, and a big part of my education about the
world and the people who inhabit it came from queuing for food.
b)
If you were a child of the rationing system, sooner or later you
learned that it wasn't just food that was rationed.
c)
The day you were lucky enough to get a basin of eggs, you also watched
a long line of strangers eyeing you with jealousy, even hatred: you
were not who you were, but what you were rationed to be and rationing
did not mean that you could always get your share.
d)
Queuing for food was part of most people's life in Beijing in the
1970s, and even most of the things on our table – rice, flour, oil,
pork, fish, eggs, milk, sugar, sesame paste, tofu – were rationed.

9.The human body responds to a microbial infection by producing
antibodies. When children are very small, they are prone to get more
infections especially cough, cold, fever etc but as they grow older
and have fallen sick a number of times the frequency of these
infections markedly decreases. Obviously, the large number of
infections inflicting the young children make the white blood cell
concentrations high enough to be able to produce antibodies to deal
with such infections. Hence, falling sick now and then is actually
beneficial to children as it raises the white blood cell
concentrations required to increase their immunity to disease.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument
presented above?
a)
There are many strains of the cough, cold and fever viruses and
children when infected develop resistance naturally to individual
strains.
b)
Cough, common cold and fever are not amenable to any treatment and
children commonly spread viruses and bacteria when interacting in a
small closed environment.
c)
White blood cells help fight infections and their production levels
are stimulated by repeated infections.
d)
The use of Vitamin C increases resistance to the common cold and
decreases its frequency.

10.According to James R. Flynn, the environment will always be the
principal determinant of whether or not a particular genetic
predisposition gets to be fully expressed. "There is a strong tendency
for a genetic advantage or disadvantage to get more and more matched
to a corresponding environment," he writes. Flynn's most intriguing
claim concerns the preponderant influence of the environment over
genetic inheritance in determining intelligence. He stated that even
modest intellectual endowment can be overcome at any stage of life by
an enriched cognitive environment buttressed by ambition and
sustained, focused individual effort.

Which of the following sets of findings have to be true in order to
prove Flynn's hypothesis to be correct?
a)
(i) Children raised in solo-parent homes do not show any difference in
their IQ levels as compared to ones who are nurtured by both parents.
(ii) Children born of parents who have migrated to an advanced country
show little difference in IQ levels compared to the children of the
natives of that country.
b)
(i) IQ scores should decrease in response to unfavourable
environments. (ii) Genetic advantages that may have been quite modest
at birth have a huge effect on eventual skills when matched with
better environments.
c)
(i) Once a genetic trait is established, it remains more or less
constant throughout life. (ii) Lowering of an individual's IQ would
have an effect on the society in which he lives.
d)
(i) IQ drops three points because a larger number of affluent
middle-class children prefer wandering around shopping malls to
profiting from schooling. (ii) Twins with even a slight genetic IQ
advantage are more likely to be drawn toward learning, perform better
during their primary and secondary education, and thereby gain
acceptance into top-tier universities.

11 SC

Select all that are correct:

a)
The village of Shaoshan in the green hills of Hunan province in
east-central China is gearing for a big party on
b)
the 120th birthday of its most famous son, Mao Zedong. Debate rages in
China under Mao's historical role.
c)
Some call him a tyrant for the violence he put on the heart of his
rule, causing the deaths of
d)
ten of million of people. Others worship him almost as a god. In
Shaoshan he is a money-spinner,
e)
with the farmhouse where he was born attracting millions of Chinese
tourists every year.

12 SC

Select all that are correct:

a)
Abdelaziz Bouteflika, Algeria's head of state, is a man of diminutive
stature and legend staying power.
b)
The 76-year-old secured his first ministerial post in 1962, served as
foreign minister since 16 years and has occupied
c)
the presidential palace since 1999. But his hold seemed earlier to
slip at last this year.
d)
Mr Bouteflika suffered a stroke and was rushed to Paris for treatment
while corruption probes fingered
e)
close associates. The talk between pundits in Algiers, the capital,
was of inevitable turn to "debouteflikisation".

13 SC

13 SC

Select all that are correct:

a)
Half of the building outside Coventry, in West Midlands, looks like an
aircraft hangar, the
b)
other half as the offices of an investment bank or legal firm.
Businessmen in pinstripes, young researchers in white coats,
c)
machinists in high visibility jackets and bearded academics stride on
the polished corridors. In the
d)
main halls, they congregate around 3D printers, dummy manufacturing
lines and laser-welding devices.
e)
Some machines are boarded for confidential experiments by individual businesses.

14 SC

Select all that are correct:

a)
For the pragmatic Swedes to use the word "magic" is a measure of the
hold the Nobel prizes have still more than a century after their
foundation.
b)
These days, there are thousands of prizes in dozens of disciplines,
some with even bigger purses than the standard £800,000 per prize.
c)
The Nobels, set up in 1901 by a Swedish dynamite magnate, retain a
special hold for us because these distinguished prizes only go to the
most distinguished people.
d)
For the prizes for the sciences, the process of finding the most
worthy laureate begins with a call for nominations, sent to 3,000
scientists and
e)
affiliates of the academy. From this, a committee of five will come
with around 300 names and then the real investigations into the
achievements will begin.

PC

15. Whether vaccines are designed to prepare the immune system for the
encounter with a pathogen or with cancer, certain common challenges
need to be faced, such as what antigen (structural substance which
serves as a target for the receptors of an adaptive immune response)
and what adjuvant (a pharmacological and/or immunological agent that
modifies the effect of other agents) to use, what type of immune
response to generate and how to make it long lasting. Cancer,
additionally, presents several unique hurdles. Cancer vaccines must
overcome immune suppression exerted by the tumour, by previous therapy
or by the effects of advanced age of the patient. If used for cancer
prevention, vaccines must elicit effective long-term memory without
the potential of causing autoimmunity.
_____________________________________
a)
Understanding Immunology is, therefore, key to developing treatments
to help manage and reduce the debilitating effects disease brings.
b)
Vaccines that are designed to prepare the immune system for encounter
with either infectious pathogens or with cancer or mediators of
autoimmunity, all face certain common challenges.
c)
When a 'secondary' response (produced by a subsequent encounter with
the relevant pathogen) is provoked, memory cells become active, and
are then quickly able to deal with the threat by producing sufficient
quantities of antibody.
d)
Considering how refractory cancer has been to standard therapy,
efforts to achieve immune control of this disease are well justified.

PC

16. If you were an ice cream, what would you be? A Häagen-Dazs --
sinful, extravagant and something to savour and aspire for? Ben &
Jerry's -- quirky, fun-loving and full of goodness? Or Wall's --
predictable, a little boring, but oh-so-dependable? If you were able
to identify -- after you stopped laughing, of course -- with this
analogy, you clearly understand the power of brands. After all,
ultimately, what is ice cream? Just a frozen confection of milk and
sugar, with some additional flavours thrown in. Do a blind taste test
of these brands for, say, vanilla ice cream, and I bet seven out of 10
people won't be able to tell their Häagen-Dazs from Vadilal. But such
is the lure of the images brands help create that just the name is
evocative of a distinctive attribute: be it class, quality or cost.
But then, you'd have to be really naïve to still believe -- if ever
you did -- that the brand is about the product. Branding is all about
product perception. It's about creating an identity and image to help
customers and stakeholders -- investors, distributors, retailers,
marketers, financiers ... the works -- reach a decision, preferably
favourable. _________________
a)
Fulsome praise, indeed, but it begs the question: what is a personal brand?
b)
The purpose of creating a personal brand is not to make you famous,
it's about enhancing your sphere of influence, because that's what
generates wealth.
c)
And when that product is you, it's even more critical the branding
process be so perfect that the decision can't be anything but in your
favour.
d)
Several strategies, from the obvious (send targeted press releases,
maintain a Web site and pay personal attention to customers) to the
unusual (create a personal brochure and use it instead of business
cards, send out personal postcards instead of the usual direct
mailers) could be used.

TITA

17. (A) At one point the hapless Mr Cameron had even planned to
deliver his speech in Germany on the same day as the commemoration of
the 50th anniversary of the Elysée treaty that sealed the partnership
of France and Germany in 1963.

(B) Even as France and Germany agonise about their future, Britain is
rethinking its relations with them.

(C) His call for renegotiation, followed by a British referendum,
provides France and Germany with more reason to avoid a new treaty.

(D) Just a day after German Chancellor Mrs Angela Merkel and French
President Mr François Hollande cheered Europe's ever closer union, the
British prime minister, David Cameron, set out his vision of an ever
looser relationship.

(E) Although the two leaders may give Mr Cameron something, he could
be overestimating his bargaining position: a joint article by their
foreign ministers declared that an "à la carte Europe" is out of the
question.



#RC

EXTRACT 1

Gender is a large part of our identity that is often defined by our
psychological difference as men and women. There is no scrap of
evidence for a physical difference between brains of men and women.
But men and women do not behave in the same ways. Men rarely share
their feelings, are more aggressive and prefer detective stories and
science. Women are more emotional, sensitive to pain and like poetry
and history.
Next, there is evidence of intelligence test results. Women do better
in verbally biased items in tests, and men in numerical, diagrammatic
items and in occupations requiring good visio-spacial ability.

The male-science/ female-arts split (seen in schools), may, as A. Heim
suggests, be a congenital difference rather than a social artifact but
it is hard to tell as long as society continues to treat women as
intellectually inferior to men. Out of 10212 students admitted to
engineering and technology courses in England in 1980, only 243 were
girls.

This male-female difference might really be due to culture. In Russia,
where women have more equal opportunities, about a third of engineers
and lawyers and two-thirds of lecturers are women. Girls in western
societies are given dolls and dish-washers rather than model
aeroplanes, and are encouraged to be passive and responsive. Boys are
brought up with the idea that their goal in life is a successful
stimulating career.

When applied to individuals these laws sometimes break down because
they only apply to the average part of the curve for genetic
variation. Some women seem to develop a rather masculine temperament
and some men are the reverse of 'what is expected.' But this is part
of the range of variation which makes sexuality lie on a continuum.
This is created not only by the XX-XY chromosomes but also by all
chromosomes playing their part in delineating the whole character of a
man or a woman. So a sound general principle could be applied to the
intelligence of the sexes with advantage: equal but possibly
different. But let Samuel Johnson have the last word. When asked which
are more intelligent, men or women, he replied, "Which man, Sir, which
woman?'.

EXTRACT 2

Sex differences are true in neurological terms – how the brain is
wired up to create them – and wiring differences underlie some of the
variations in male and female cognitive skills.

Neurology has been revolutionised by many techniques that can scan
living brains. The technique of choice for Ragini Verma (University of
Pennsylvania) is diffusion tensor imaging. This follows water
molecules around the brain. Because the fibres that connect nerve
cells have fatty sheaths, the water in them can diffuse only along a
fibre, not through the sheath. _______________________________

The "thinking" cerebrum and "acting" cerebellum of the brain are each
divided into right and left hemispheres. The dominant connections in
the cerebrum are within hemispheres in men and between hemispheres in
women. In the cerebellum, it is the other way around.

The left and right sides of the cerebrum are specialised for logical
and intuitive thought respectively. Linguistic skills and perception
of visual/ spatial relationships are lateralized in the left and right
hemispheres respectively. Beneficial collaboration between hemispheres
in women means better memories, social adeptness and multitasking
ability. In men, within-hemisphere links let them focus on things that
do not need complex inputs from both hemispheres. Hence the monomania.
In case of the cerebellum, extra cross-links between hemispheres in
men serve to co-ordinate the activity of the whole sub-organ. Each
half controls only one half of the body. Men have better motor
abilities.

Dr Verma's other finding is that sex differences in brains develop
with age. The brains of boys and girls aged 8 to 13 demonstrated few
differences, which later became pronounced. Adolescents (aged 13 to
17) showed more. Young adults, over 17, more still.

Dr. Verma also found that irrespective of gender, when learning
occurs, neurochemical communication between neurons is facilitated. In
early learning stages, neural circuits are activated piecemeal and
weakly, but less input is required to activate established connections
over time. The flow of neural activity is not unidirectional, from
simple to complex; it also goes from complex to simple. Higher order
neural circuits that are activated by contextual information
associated with the word 'cat' can prime the lower order circuit
associated with the sound 'cat', so the word 'cat' can be retrieved
with little direct input. Complex circuits can be activated at the
same time as simple circuits as the brain receives input from multiple
external sources--auditory, visual, spatial.



19. With reference to Extract 2 of the passage, which of the following
set of facts or inferences DOES NOT EXPLAIN the significant
differences between the male and female brain and therefore the
cognitive differences between the two genders?
a)
Men have better motor and spatial abilities than women, and more
monomaniacal patterns of thought. Women have better memories, are more
socially adept, and are better at dealing with several things at once.
b)
The male brain is highly specialized using specific parts of one
hemisphere or the other to accomplish specific tasks. The female brain
is more diffused and utilizes significant portions of both hemispheres
enabling women to divide their attention among multiple tasks or
activities.
c)
Men are able to focus on narrow issues and block out unrelated
information and distractions. They are able to separate information,
stimuli, emotions and relationships into separate compartments in
their brains. Women see everyday things from a broader "big-picture"
vantage point. They tend to link everything together.
d)
In men, the dominant connections in the cerebellum are within
hemispheres, while in women, they are between hemispheres. Men see
individual issues with parts of their brain while women look at
holistic or multiple issues with their whole brain. Most of the sex
differences in the male and female brain that Dr. Verma found were
congenital.

20

Select one or more answer choices according to the directions given in
the question.

All of the following statements can be understood to be logically
consistent with Extract 2 of the passage EXCEPT?


Select all that apply:

a)
Extract 2 is similar to extract 1 in primarily addressing the
question: In what ways do the brains and intelligence of men and women
differ?
b)
The last sentence in para 2 of extract 2 can be completed by – So,
diffusion tensor imaging is able to detect bundles of such fibres, and
see where they are going.
c)
As connections are formed among adjacent neurons to form circuits,
connections also begin to form with neurons in other regions of the
brain, both in the left and right hemispheres, that are associated
with visual, tactile, and even olfactory information.
d)
For a kindergarten student, learning will comprise incomplete ideas
and disconnected notions.
e)
The auditory circuit in the brain for the word 'horse' and the visual
circuit associated with the sight of a horse are activated in quick
sequence.

21

At the end of Extract 1, the author
a)
strikes a diplomatic note, subscribing to the view that we can't make
generalized statements relating intelligence to gender.
b)
adopts a non-committal stance, and stating that the answer to Samuel
Johnson's response is anybody's guess as subjectivity plays a role in
assessing intelligence.
c)
supports an objective view that intelligence is gender specific.
d)
presents an enigmatic opinion, reiterating that intelligent men and
women are a rare species.


22
According to Extract 1, it is difficult to accept A. Heim's view on
gender difference with regard to intelligence because
a)
of our preconceived notions.
b)
of societal practices and conventional mindsets.
c)
the laws on genetic variations do not seem to work on some men and women.
d)
of research findings which have suggested otherwise.





#RC

Our relationship to reality is more complicated than we realize. This
holds true for humankind in general. American society in particular
has developed some specific deficiencies in its attitude to reality.
By reality I mean everything that actually exists or happens. All
conscious human beings, their thoughts and actions are part of
reality. This fact, that our thinking forms part of what we think
about, has far reaching implications both for our thinking and for
reality. It sets some insuperable obstacles to understanding reality
and it also renders reality different from what we understand it to
be. The latter distinction does not necessarily apply to all of
reality. Some aspects of reality permit us to acquire knowledge but
others are not amenable to dispassionate understanding, and reality as
a whole belongs to that category. Exactly where the dividing line lies
between what can be known and cannot be known itself is one of the
things that cannot be known. Scientific method keeps making inroads
into areas that were previously considered impenetrable. For instance,
consciousness previously belonged to the realm of philosophy but now
it has become the subject of scientific study.

Knowledge is represented by true statements. According to the
correspondence theory of truth, statements are true if they correspond
to the facts. To establish correspondence the facts and the statements
which refer to them must be independent of each other. It is this
requirement that cannot be fulfilled when our thinking is part of what
we think about. This complication does not arise with regard to other
aspects of reality. The movement of heavenly bodies and the hatching
of eggs occur no matter what we think about them. They are the objects
of knowledge.

Our brains evolved to connect the dots of our world into meaningful
patterns that can explain reality or why things happen. These
meaningful patterns become beliefs and these beliefs shape our
understanding of reality. Once beliefs are formed, the brain begins to
look for and find confirmatory evidence in support of those beliefs,
which adds an emotional boost of further evidence in the beliefs and
thereby accelerates the process of reinforcing them (positive feedback
loop of belief confirmation). This process of belief-dependent realism
is patterned after the philosophy of science called "model-dependent
realism", based on the idea that our brains interpret the input from
our sensory organs by making a model of the world. When such a model
is successful at explaining events, we tend to attribute to it, and to
the elements and concepts that constitute it, the quality of reality
or absolute truth. Belief-dependent realism is a higher-order form of
model-dependent realism.

All models of the world, not just scientific models, are foundational
to our beliefs, and belief-dependent realism means that we cannot
escape this epistemological trap. We can employ the tools of science,
which are designed to test whether belief-dependent realism or not a
particular model or belief about reality matches observations made not
just by ourselves but by others as well. Although there is no
Archimedean point outside of ourselves from which we can view the
truth about reality, science is the best tool ever designed for
fashioning provisional truths about conditional realities. Thus
Belief-dependent realism is not epistemological relativism where all
truths are equal and everyone's reality deserves respect. The universe
really did begin with a big bang, the earth really is billions of
years old, and evolution really happened, and someone's belief to the
contrary is really wrong. Even though the Ptolemaic earth-centered
system can render observations equally well as the Copernician
sun-centered system, no one today holds that these models are equal
because we know from additional lines of evidence that heliocentrism
more closely matches reality than geocentrism, even if we cannot
declare this to be an Absolute Truth about Reality.






31. All of the following can be understood from the passage EXCEPT?

(a) The equations of quantum mechanics work very well; they just don't
seem to make sense.

(b) Superposition is a fundamental principle of quantum mechanics and
"Probability waves" are not real but merely have the capability of
becoming real when an observer makes a measurement.

(c) An illustration of 'non-locality' as discussed in the passage is –
Alpha Centauri is about 4 light years away, and while things are
certainly happening there "right now", it won't matter to us at all
for another four years.

(d) When one gains knowledge about the position of very small atomic
nuclei and electrons, one is always bound to gain knowledge about the
moments of the same.

(e) Schrödinger's Cat is both alive and dead until its box is opened.
But if, the box has already been opened and the Cat is found to be
alive, then the Cat was always alive. Things like superposition and
all of the usual awesomeness of quantum mechanics go away.
a)
c and d
b)
b and d
c)
a, b and e
d)
a and c


32. Those who adopt the "shut up and calculate" attitude .....
a)
are not bothered to go beyond the quantum theory and believe that
critics of the quantum theory are unduly fussy.
b)
are satisfied with the answers provided by the quantum theory.
c)
feel that challenging the validity of the quantum theory is a futile exercise.
d)
opine that our incapability to comprehend the quantum theory makes us
raise unwarranted questions.


33. The discomfort that Einstein experienced when he declared that
"God does not play dice" could be due to all of the following EXCEPT?
a)
The inability to explain some inexplicable phenomena in the universe.
b)
The uneasiness in understanding random happenings.
c)
The difficulty in making quantum theory intelligible and the failure
to account for the several gaps in the principles underlying quantum
theory.
d)
The struggle to theorise the principles of quantum mechanism.


34. It can be inferred from the passage that Erwin Schrodinger (and
physicists who aimed to understand greater truths) considered the
concept of 'superposition' to be
a)
funny.
b)
incredible.
c)
absurd.
d)
spooky.

CL - 1521

Solutions of Mock CAT - 21 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

---

• Scorecard
• Accuracy
• Qs Analysis
• Booster Analysis
• Video Analysis
• Solutions
• Bookmarks

• VRC
• LRDI
• QA
 

Sec 1

Directions for questions 1 to 3: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The young are given to analysis; they love to sift every issue threadbare with passionate scepticism and eager competence. The elderly tell stories. Fortunately for the latter, in recent years stories have become respectable in the social sciences, more so after some people have cleverly begun to call them narratives. However, listening to Indian stories can be trying, even in these post-modern days. Most of them lack a proper ending - this is no longer a crime, I am told - but they are also often not new, which is still an unforgivable sin in the global culture of knowledge. As with classical plays and ritual narrations of epics and sacred myths, these stories create their own surprises in the process of being re-told. So I need not apologise if you find my story is not new and lacks a proper ending; I shall apologise only if you find that I have not told it right. This is actually a story about stories. It begins with the awareness that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is a certain ambivalence towards democratic politics. While drawing sustenance from traditions, democratic politics is also expected to alter and update such societies for the contemporary world. These countries have reportedly fallen behind in the race that all countries these days breathlessly run to stay where they stand in the global Olympiad of nation-states. One enters this race not just with a political style which reflects specific cultural traditions, but also with a political process seeking to become a legitimate force of cultural change and promising to mediate between hope and experience, inherited fears and acquired ambitions. The contending stories of politics and traditions frame this process. They contain the ambivalence and anxieties associated with democracy, and they help construct the past in a way that makes possible meaningful political choices in the present. Such stories also have shelf lives. They are born and they die; some after a long and glorious life, others after a brief, inglorious tenure. For instance, scholars of Indian political culture have, off and on, ventured the story of a stable culture facing an alien political order and, on the whole, unable to make much sense of it. Their idea of Indian politics as a straightforward reflection of Hindu culture and personality now looks jaded not because of the passage of time and academic fashions, but because a different political situation has now gripped the pubic imagination - that of a culture being literally bombarded by new global challenges and trying to maintain its identity in the face of these. Likewise, the competing stories that others have produced - of cultural and psychological forces as epiphenomena, and of Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas in order to establish the supremacy of a historically superior order - have not survived well either. The global resurgence of religion and ethnicity has taken better care of such economic determinism than have their academic opponents. In both cases, the truth or falsity of such stories is of secondary importance; more important is the fact that neither rings true in the present global context.

Q.1  Why is there ambivalence towards democratic politics in societies like those of China and India?

a   Because these societies are rigidly hierarchical and therefore cannot progress while simultaneously committing to democratic principles.

b  Because China and India are demographically plural and therefore cannot follow the concept of one-nation democracy.

c  Because these ancient societies look to sustain their tradition while also modifying and updating it through the process of democratic politics.

d  Cannot be determined

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Refer to the second paragraph of the passage. The author has mentioned that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is some ambivalence towards democratic politics. However, he has not mentioned the cause of this ambivalence. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 1 to 3: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The young are given to analysis; they love to sift every issue threadbare with passionate scepticism and eager competence. The elderly tell stories. Fortunately for the latter, in recent years stories have become respectable in the social sciences, more so after some people have cleverly begun to call them narratives. However, listening to Indian stories can be trying, even in these post-modern days. Most of them lack a proper ending - this is no longer a crime, I am told - but they are also often not new, which is still an unforgivable sin in the global culture of knowledge. As with classical plays and ritual narrations of epics and sacred myths, these stories create their own surprises in the process of being re-told. So I need not apologise if you find my story is not new and lacks a proper ending; I shall apologise only if you find that I have not told it right. This is actually a story about stories. It begins with the awareness that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is a certain ambivalence towards democratic politics. While drawing sustenance from traditions, democratic politics is also expected to alter and update such societies for the contemporary world. These countries have reportedly fallen behind in the race that all countries these days breathlessly run to stay where they stand in the global Olympiad of nation-states. One enters this race not just with a political style which reflects specific cultural traditions, but also with a political process seeking to become a legitimate force of cultural change and promising to mediate between hope and experience, inherited fears and acquired ambitions. The contending stories of politics and traditions frame this process. They contain the ambivalence and anxieties associated with democracy, and they help construct the past in a way that makes possible meaningful political choices in the present. Such stories also have shelf lives. They are born and they die; some after a long and glorious life, others after a brief, inglorious tenure. For instance, scholars of Indian political culture have, off and on, ventured the story of a stable culture facing an alien political order and, on the whole, unable to make much sense of it. Their idea of Indian politics as a straightforward reflection of Hindu culture and personality now looks jaded not because of the passage of time and academic fashions, but because a different political situation has now gripped the pubic imagination - that of a culture being literally bombarded by new global challenges and trying to maintain its identity in the face of these. Likewise, the competing stories that others have produced - of cultural and psychological forces as epiphenomena, and of Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas in order to establish the supremacy of a historically superior order - have not survived well either. The global resurgence of religion and ethnicity has taken better care of such economic determinism than have their academic opponents. In both cases, the truth or falsity of such stories is of secondary importance; more important is the fact that neither rings true in the present global context.

Q.2  The author uses the word 'epiphenomena' to suggest

a   obvious reasons for the occurrence of a phenomenon.

b  a secondary effect or by-product of a phenomenon.

c  adverse factors that hinder progress.

d  None of these

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Epiphenomenon means a secondary effect or by-product. The author talks about cultural and psychological forces as by-products and also mentions Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 1 to 3: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The young are given to analysis; they love to sift every issue threadbare with passionate scepticism and eager competence. The elderly tell stories. Fortunately for the latter, in recent years stories have become respectable in the social sciences, more so after some people have cleverly begun to call them narratives. However, listening to Indian stories can be trying, even in these post-modern days. Most of them lack a proper ending - this is no longer a crime, I am told - but they are also often not new, which is still an unforgivable sin in the global culture of knowledge. As with classical plays and ritual narrations of epics and sacred myths, these stories create their own surprises in the process of being re-told. So I need not apologise if you find my story is not new and lacks a proper ending; I shall apologise only if you find that I have not told it right. This is actually a story about stories. It begins with the awareness that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is a certain ambivalence towards democratic politics. While drawing sustenance from traditions, democratic politics is also expected to alter and update such societies for the contemporary world. These countries have reportedly fallen behind in the race that all countries these days breathlessly run to stay where they stand in the global Olympiad of nation-states. One enters this race not just with a political style which reflects specific cultural traditions, but also with a political process seeking to become a legitimate force of cultural change and promising to mediate between hope and experience, inherited fears and acquired ambitions. The contending stories of politics and traditions frame this process. They contain the ambivalence and anxieties associated with democracy, and they help construct the past in a way that makes possible meaningful political choices in the present. Such stories also have shelf lives. They are born and they die; some after a long and glorious life, others after a brief, inglorious tenure. For instance, scholars of Indian political culture have, off and on, ventured the story of a stable culture facing an alien political order and, on the whole, unable to make much sense of it. Their idea of Indian politics as a straightforward reflection of Hindu culture and personality now looks jaded not because of the passage of time and academic fashions, but because a different political situation has now gripped the pubic imagination - that of a culture being literally bombarded by new global challenges and trying to maintain its identity in the face of these. Likewise, the competing stories that others have produced - of cultural and psychological forces as epiphenomena, and of Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas in order to establish the supremacy of a historically superior order - have not survived well either. The global resurgence of religion and ethnicity has taken better care of such economic determinism than have their academic opponents. In both cases, the truth or falsity of such stories is of secondary importance; more important is the fact that neither rings true in the present global context.

Q.3  As per the passage, countries participate in the global Olympiad with which of the following?

a   A political style reflective of specific cultural traditions.

b  An identical political style, common to all countries, to ensure that they can perform equally.

c  A political process that seeks to become a force capable of affecting a cultural change.

d  Both (a) and (c)

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Refer to the second paragraph. Options (a) and (c) follow from this. Option (b) is straightaway ruled out as the passage states that countries participating in the global Olympiad have their own political style which reflects specific cultural traditions. Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 4 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Recently, revolution in reproductive technology has attracted wide attention as controversy centered, initially, on the premise that genetic cloning techniques could create new, possibly dangerous forms of life. Attention next focused on the power of genetic engineering to produce valuable new medical and agricultural products. Largely overlooked, however, are developments that will ultimately have far greater social impact: the ability to analyse genetic information will allow the prediction of human traits. While some fear that by analysing the entire library of human gene sequences we will discover the essence of humanity, this is unlikely. Our bodies are complex networks of interacting components, influenced by a variable environment. Nevertheless, genes do help determine aspects of human form and function. Herein lie the seeds of future problems. By about the year 2005, barring unforeseen technical obstacles, scientists will have fully mapped the complex human genetic terrain. Before this, however, new information will make possible techniques that will engender a host of ethical issues. Imagine that investigators could predict with some accuracy such aspects of human behaviour or functioning as intelligence, shyness, aggressiveness, or heat tolerance. Consider the power this would give to some and the vulnerable position in which it would put others.  Even if society can anticipate and control most misuse of genetic data, we face a more insidious problem: a rising ethic of genetic determinism. For the past century, ideological currents have closely affected the nature versus nurture debate. Widespread rejection of social Darwinism and institutionalized racism has buoyed the strong naturist sentiments of the past half century, but a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition. Such an uncritical embrace of genetics will not be checked by scientists' reminders that the powers of genetic predictions are limited. Environmental variations can cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different ways, and genetics will at best suggest only a probability of development for complex traits, such as those involved in behaviour and cognition. Those overlooking this will disastrously misjudge individual ability. What a tragedy this would be! We Americans have viewed our roots as interesting historical relics, hardly as rigid molds dictating all that we are and will be. Moreover, a belief that each of us is responsible for our own behaviour has woven our social fabric. Yet, in coming years, we will hear increasingly from those attributing 'bad' behaviour to inexorable biological forces. As a biologist, I find this a bitter prospect. The biological revolution of the past decades will spawn enormous benefits, but we will pay a very heavy price unless we craft an ethic that cherishes our spontaneity, unpredictability, and individual uniqueness.

Q.4  Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?

a   The relation between science and society leads to complex ethical questions that may either benefit or impair the development of each.

b  Society will ultimately understand that environmental conditions may cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different directions.

c  The ability to analyse human genetic make-up could lead to a dangerous belief in genes as determinants of who we are and how we think.

d  The ability to analyse complex genetic information will ultimately lead to a fundamental understanding of human form and function.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Option (c) correctly covers the passage's topic, scope and point of view. Option (a) goes beyond the scope of the passage while option (b) makes an unsupported assumption. Option (d) misses the core of the passage. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 4 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Recently, revolution in reproductive technology has attracted wide attention as controversy centered, initially, on the premise that genetic cloning techniques could create new, possibly dangerous forms of life. Attention next focused on the power of genetic engineering to produce valuable new medical and agricultural products. Largely overlooked, however, are developments that will ultimately have far greater social impact: the ability to analyse genetic information will allow the prediction of human traits. While some fear that by analysing the entire library of human gene sequences we will discover the essence of humanity, this is unlikely. Our bodies are complex networks of interacting components, influenced by a variable environment. Nevertheless, genes do help determine aspects of human form and function. Herein lie the seeds of future problems. By about the year 2005, barring unforeseen technical obstacles, scientists will have fully mapped the complex human genetic terrain. Before this, however, new information will make possible techniques that will engender a host of ethical issues. Imagine that investigators could predict with some accuracy such aspects of human behaviour or functioning as intelligence, shyness, aggressiveness, or heat tolerance. Consider the power this would give to some and the vulnerable position in which it would put others.  Even if society can anticipate and control most misuse of genetic data, we face a more insidious problem: a rising ethic of genetic determinism. For the past century, ideological currents have closely affected the nature versus nurture debate. Widespread rejection of social Darwinism and institutionalized racism has buoyed the strong naturist sentiments of the past half century, but a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition. Such an uncritical embrace of genetics will not be checked by scientists' reminders that the powers of genetic predictions are limited. Environmental variations can cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different ways, and genetics will at best suggest only a probability of development for complex traits, such as those involved in behaviour and cognition. Those overlooking this will disastrously misjudge individual ability. What a tragedy this would be! We Americans have viewed our roots as interesting historical relics, hardly as rigid molds dictating all that we are and will be. Moreover, a belief that each of us is responsible for our own behaviour has woven our social fabric. Yet, in coming years, we will hear increasingly from those attributing 'bad' behaviour to inexorable biological forces. As a biologist, I find this a bitter prospect. The biological revolution of the past decades will spawn enormous benefits, but we will pay a very heavy price unless we craft an ethic that cherishes our spontaneity, unpredictability, and individual uniqueness.

Q.5  The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following predictions about the biological revolution discussed in the passage?

a   The revolution will lead to gross injustices in society.

b  The revolution will bring greater good than harm to society.

c  The revolution will not be as far-reaching as some believe.

d  The revolution may be problematic as well as beneficial.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Refer to the last sentence of the passage. The author sums up his view in this line and option (d) is a direct paraphrase of this line. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 4 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Recently, revolution in reproductive technology has attracted wide attention as controversy centered, initially, on the premise that genetic cloning techniques could create new, possibly dangerous forms of life. Attention next focused on the power of genetic engineering to produce valuable new medical and agricultural products. Largely overlooked, however, are developments that will ultimately have far greater social impact: the ability to analyse genetic information will allow the prediction of human traits. While some fear that by analysing the entire library of human gene sequences we will discover the essence of humanity, this is unlikely. Our bodies are complex networks of interacting components, influenced by a variable environment. Nevertheless, genes do help determine aspects of human form and function. Herein lie the seeds of future problems. By about the year 2005, barring unforeseen technical obstacles, scientists will have fully mapped the complex human genetic terrain. Before this, however, new information will make possible techniques that will engender a host of ethical issues. Imagine that investigators could predict with some accuracy such aspects of human behaviour or functioning as intelligence, shyness, aggressiveness, or heat tolerance. Consider the power this would give to some and the vulnerable position in which it would put others.  Even if society can anticipate and control most misuse of genetic data, we face a more insidious problem: a rising ethic of genetic determinism. For the past century, ideological currents have closely affected the nature versus nurture debate. Widespread rejection of social Darwinism and institutionalized racism has buoyed the strong naturist sentiments of the past half century, but a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition. Such an uncritical embrace of genetics will not be checked by scientists' reminders that the powers of genetic predictions are limited. Environmental variations can cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different ways, and genetics will at best suggest only a probability of development for complex traits, such as those involved in behaviour and cognition. Those overlooking this will disastrously misjudge individual ability. What a tragedy this would be! We Americans have viewed our roots as interesting historical relics, hardly as rigid molds dictating all that we are and will be. Moreover, a belief that each of us is responsible for our own behaviour has woven our social fabric. Yet, in coming years, we will hear increasingly from those attributing 'bad' behaviour to inexorable biological forces. As a biologist, I find this a bitter prospect. The biological revolution of the past decades will spawn enormous benefits, but we will pay a very heavy price unless we craft an ethic that cherishes our spontaneity, unpredictability, and individual uniqueness.

Q.6  The author mentions the nature-versus-nurture debate primarily in order to

a   demonstrate the difficulty of predicting and preventing misuse of scientific data.

b  supply a point of reference for an assessment of the validity of recent advances in genetics.

c  cast doubt on the moral integrity of society.

d  illustrate that many people are likely to believe that genetics determines our behavior and ability.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Refer to paragraphs three and four. The author states that "...a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition". Option (d) follows from this. Option (a) contradicts the idea presented in the first line of the third paragraph. Assessing the validity of recent advances in genetics has not been mentioned in the passage. Option (c) is irrelevant. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.' Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'. How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it. Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair.  Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.

Q.7  Which of the following is not true with regard to estrangement, according to the author?

a   It is a cause of the negativity currently pervading philosophy.

b  It makes incorrect pretensions to answer all the questions of life.

c  It results in despair, affecting scientific as well as ontological thinkers.

d  It is caused by lack of knowledge about the purpose of life.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: One of the effects of estrangement is "the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching" and it is this which pretends to answer all questions. So, option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) can be inferred from the first sentence of the second paragraph. Option (c) can be inferred from the fifth sentence of the second paragraph which talks of religious thinkers, mathematicians and scientists. Option (d) can be inferred from the sixth sentence of the second paragraph which states that we lack knowledge about what to do.

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.' Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'. How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it. Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair.  Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.

Q.8  The author agrees with all of the following except that

a   education leads to transmission of ideas which enables man to make his choices.

b  scientific ideas are useful for the interpretation of life.

c  it takes about three-four generations from the birth of an idea for it to reach its maturity.

d  science tells man little about the meaning of life.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The author is likely to agree with options (a), (c) and (d) as they are supported by the closing lines of paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 respectively. In paragraph 4, the author clearly mentions that the ideas of science are completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or to the interpretation of the world. Option (b) contradicts this and hence, is the right answer.

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.' Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'. How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it. Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair.  Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.

Q.9  What, according to the author, could hold the key towards making human life and the world intelligible?

a   Technological advancement

b  Education

c  Humanities

d  Second law of thermodynamics

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Refer to paragraph 5. It is clear that the author thinks that humanities hold the key to making human life and the world intelligible. Thus, option (c) is the right answer.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.' Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'. How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it. Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair.  Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.

Q.10  The author is most likely to be

a   a philosopher.

b  a scientist.

c  a litterateur.

d  a syndicated columnist.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The author stresses that science only gives us limited knowledge and does not make our life more intelligible. He also mentions various thinkers and uses their ideas to build his argument. Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.' Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'. How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it. Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair.  Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.

Q.11  The author uses the Second Law of Thermodynamics to

a   illustrate his argument about the little purpose of scientific know-how in the experience and interpretation of the world.

b  argue that educated people deplore the illiteracy of scientists.

c  demonstrate the importance of the Second Law of Thermodynamics to human life.

d  draw a parallel between Shakespeare's works and the Second Law of Thermodynamics.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Refer to paragraph 3. Option (a) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.' Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'. How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it. Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair.  Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.

Q.12  The passage quotes all of the following except

a   Fred Hoyle

b  Lord Snow

c  Ortega & Gasset

d  Kierkegaard

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Though Kierkegaard's name has been mentioned in paragraph 2, no quotation in the passage can be attributed to him. Hence, option (d) is the right answer.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance.  Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune. The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.

Q.13  According to the passage, which of the following best summarizes the story of Orestes?

a   Orestes, due to his ability to stand for his actions, was able to free his clan of the curse and win the friendship of both Apollo and the benevolent Eumenides.

b  The story of Orestes, his dilemma, his sins, and his subsequent acquittal prove the benefits of accepting complete responsibility for one’s actions.

c  Orestes, despite his dilemma, does what he must do. Then he accepts the responsibility for his action. This, in turn, turns a new chapter in the history of his clan.

d  Orestes blames the curse for committing matricide and, in the process, frees his clan of the curse forever with the help of Apollo.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Option (b) is a conclusion of the passage and the story alone can’t give us sufficient data to reach the conclusion. Option (d) is misleading. Orestes doesn’t blame the curse. Option (a) is wrong because the passage doesn’t talk about the friendship between Orestes and Apollo. So, option (c) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance.  Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune. The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.

Q.14  Which of the following option best describes the style of the author in the passage?

a   Sermonizing

b  Hortatory

c  Lugubrious

d  Examining

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The author doesn’t have a patronizing style. So, option (a) is not the answer. The tone is not gloomy. So, option (c) is not the answer. 'Hortatory' means exhorting or strongly advising. Hence, option (b) can not be the answer. The author analyzes a particular myth and applies it to another situation. Hence, option (d) is the best answer.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance.  Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune. The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.

Q.15  Based on the passage, which characteristic best describes Orestes:

a   Pragmatic

b  Resilient

c  Phlegmatic

d  Conscientious

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Orestes takes full moral responsibility for his action. He doesn’t blame others. Hence he is conscientious. 'Resilient' means flexible. 'Pragmatic' means to be practical. 'Phlegmatic' means to behave in a stoic manner. These options do not fit the context of the passage.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance.  Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune. The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.

Q.16  Which of the following best summarizes the structure of the passage?

a   The author begins with an explicitly stated premise and then goes on to mitigate it.

b  The author analyzes the perks of following a particular behavioral pattern.

c  The author evaluates the perks associated with a particular healing process.

d  The author urges the readers to follow a favourable path mentioned in the form of a parable.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Option (a) is wrong because the author doesn’t mitigate his premise. He simply analyzes it. Option (d) is wrong because the author doesn’t urge the readers to follow any path. The term parable is misleading too. Option (c) talks about the healing process. The author simply talks about the beginning of the healing process. However, the author does analyze the benefits of accepting responsibility for one’s symptoms. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance.  Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune. The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.

Q.17  What symbolizes the relationship between grace and mental illness?

a   Orestes claiming responsibility for his actions without blaming the gods.

b  The torture inflicted upon Orestes due to the nature of the Furies.

c  The transformation of the Furies into Eumenides, completely reversing their purpose.

d  Orestes being forgiven even though he committed the greatest Greek sin of matricide.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The act of claiming responsibility brought Orestes the gods’ amazement, so option (a) is not relevant to the question. In option (b), the Furies are used as a metaphor for mental illness, but grace is not mentioned. Option (d) confirms that Orestes committed a grave sin, but bears no relation to the question. Option (c) is correct because the last paragraph makes it crystal clear that the Furies and Eumenides are portrayals of mental illness and grace, respectively.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance.  Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune. The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.

Q.18  What is the main idea that the author presents by relating the myth of Orestes?

a   A person who owns up for his crimes is almost always acquitted by competent judges.

b  A person who regrets his sins and expresses remorse deserves to be freed of guilt.

c  A person who accepts responsibility and repents his actions is worthy of being given a saving grace.

d  A person who has gone through personal anguish is eligible for exalted status.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The last paragraph states that “he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom”, thus making option (c) correct. Option (a) would make simple confession a basis for acquittal, which is not the author’s idea of justice. Option (b) mentions the regret that a sinner must feel, but that person’s freedom from guilt can only come if he tries to heal the sins instead of just expressing remorse. Option (d) cannot be the main idea since exalted status is not the author’s premise; rather, his premise is about turning mental illness into grace by making an effort to heal the effects of sinful actions.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief? But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement. The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found. Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails. In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces. One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you. Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.

Q.19  Which of the following captures the essence of the passage?

a   Any new visitor to the Clarens area can be awestruck by the mammoth fossils of the terrible lizards called Massospondylus.

b  The fossils found in South Africa indicate the difference in the time periods of evolution in the field of Paleontology.

c  Despite one’s initial disbelief, one inevitably falls for the allure of the Massospondylus. This, in turn, proves the supremacy of South Africa in the field of Paleontology.

d  Any new visitor to the Clarens area must pay his/her homage to the giant Massospondylus. The now extinct species are a fine specimen of the wonders of the natural world.

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: It is the most appropriate answer. The other options don’t capture the central idea of this paragraph. The paragraph primarily describes the different time periods with relation to the evolution of dinosaurs.

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief? But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement. The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found. Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails. In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces. One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you. Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.

Q.20  In the first paragraph, what is the most likely reason the author states, “Who can blame you for laughing in disbelief”?

a   To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in the anomalous

b  To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in aberrations

c  To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in Paleontology

d  To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in the uncommon

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Anomalous, though used as a synonym for uncommon, has a negative connotation. The author here, most likely, talks about our tendency to disbelieve in things which are not typical. Dinosaur droppings for inspection might not be found everywhere. Options (a), (b), and (c) are wrong.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief? But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement. The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found. Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails. In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces. One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you. Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.

Q.21  This passage is most likely an excerpt from:

a   the memoirs of an avid traveller

b  a textbook on Paleontology

c  a guidebook on South African tourism

d  the personal column of a newspaper

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The passage is not in the first person narrative form. Hence, it can’t be a memoir. We don’t have adequate data to support option (b). Newspaper columns or textbooks will not be written in the tone used in the passage. Option (c) is the best possible answer.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief? But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement. The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found. Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails. In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces. One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you. Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.

Q.22  Who among the following would be considered by Dr. Groenewald to have “palaeo eyes?”

a   Sunil, who found his first dinosaur fossil at the age of 12 and is now a renowned Paleontologist

b  Rajdeep, who can identify the skeleton of any dinosaur belonging to any era accurately

c  Joan, who can discern among a range of skeletons and identify a dinosaur fossil accurately

d  Saumya, who has written five books on how to identify features of a dinosaur

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Refer to the last sentence of the passage “Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.” Only Joan shows that ability. Writing a book or practicing a particular profession doesn’t ensure expertise in the practice of a particular skill.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief? But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement. The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found. Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails. In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces. One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you. Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.

Q.23  Which of the following places is the one to visit for early Jurassic-era fossils?

a   Places where rocks of the Stormberg group are found

b  The Karoo region where Permian and Triassic remnants are found

c  Malutis region of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces

d  The Golden Gate Highlands National park sandstone cliffs

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The fifth paragraph clearly states the location of Jurassic era dinosaur traces, which is the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces, making option (c) correct. The Stormberg rocks are mentioned only in regard to Massospondylus, and the Golden Gate highlands are not associated with any specific period of fossils.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.  The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief? But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement. The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found. Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails. In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces. One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you. Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.

Q.24  What is the author’s estimate of the time elapsed between the end of the dinosaurs’ dominating period on Earth and the present day?

a   65 million years

b  120 million years

c  185 million years

d  100,000 to 200,000 years

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The sixth paragraph explicitly states the “dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago”. 120 million years is the duration of the dinosaurs’ supremacy. 185 million years is the end of the Early Jurassic era as written in the second paragraph. 100-200,000 years ago is the time that modern humans have existed.

Correct Answer : a




Q.25  The passage given below is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Key in the number of the option you choose as your answer. Self-esteem is a core identity issue, essential to personal validation and to our ability to experience joy. Once achieved, it comes from the inside out. But, it is assaulted or stunted from the outside in. A person with low self-esteem does not feel good about himself because he has absorbed negative messages from the prevalent culture and/or from relationships. Self-esteem is an upward or downward spiral. What you do affects the way you feel. How you feel affects the things you do. The things you do affect what you and others think of you. This, in turn, affects how you feel about yourself. You're either building yourself up or tearing yourself down. There is no status quo when it comes to your self-image. (1)The core issue at any given time is the need to validate one's personal growth at any cost. (2)Self-esteem needs to be nurtured and tended with care; once established, it helps you to build yourself up in an upward spiral. (3)Low self-esteem is detrimental to the extent that growth can get stunted and your personality may be torn down. (4)Life is a continuous process of image and esteem-building - positive experiences fuel an upward trend and vice versa with no room for status quo.

2

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Options (1) and (3) do not follow from the passage. Option (2) only captures the positive aspects of the paragraph. Option (4) best captures the ideas presented in the paragraph. Thus, option (4) is the correct answer.

Correct Answer : 4




Q.26  The passage given below is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Key in the number of the option you choose as your answer. I have gained and achieved a reasonable degree of control over my own life. In times past I have allowed others to anger me by them doing or not doing according to my will, wish, want and desire. Friends, relatives and even strangers, whose cooperation I felt I needed to carry on with my life was denied to me on many occasions. I had fancied myself as a natural leader of men whose purpose in life was to lead and to guide other people on to great or greater things. What a fool I was. (1)Uncontrolled emotions lead to the denial of a natural life. (2)Self-generated myths result in the pursuit of inconsequential goals and endeavours. (3)Self-realization, even at a latent stage, is beneficial in overcoming obstacles. (4)Despite many challenges and problems, I have been able to achieve control over my life.

4

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: Options (1), (2) and (3) do not follow from the paragraph and can be rejected. (Option (1) - denial of a natural life, (2) - self-generated myths... inconsequential goals and (3) - latent stage - are not mentioned in the given paragraph). Option (4) best summarises the given paragraph.

Correct Answer : 4




Q.27  The passage given below is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Key in the number of the option you choose as your answer. Bred in Delhi, she credits her successful career in music to her school teachers Jenkins Dennis and Manuel. “They were the people who pushed me into singing Western music. It was a big challenge for me as I was the odd one in a family of Carnatic music lovers. I was very shy and reticent. They introduced me to good old pops of the 60s and 70s and I gradually glided into Western music listening to Cliff Richard and Jim Reeves,” she adds. 1. The singer feels she could never have achieved her potential if her teachers would not have supported her. 2. A lot of inspiration is required for a person to break out of certain moulds. 3. The Delhi-born singer attributes her success to her school teachers who inspired her. 4. Teachers have a significant impact on their student’s lives.

3

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The paragraph states that the singer holds her teachers responsible for her successful career in music. The paragraph goes on to state how the teachers contributed to the growth of her talent. So, option (3) is the correct answer. Option (1) is incorrect because we cannot infer from the paragraph that the singer could never achieve her potential without her teachers. Options (2) and (4) are negated because we cannot make a general statement on the basis of one example mentioned in the paragraph.

Correct Answer : 3




Q.28  The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Also, The Sun described the boy, who lives on a council estate with his single mother in Ballymena, Northern Ireland, and who suffers from learning disabilities and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, as “reclusive”.  2. The Daily Mail’s front page referred to him as “a baby-faced loner who rarely leaves his bedroom”. 3. The portrait of the hacker as an antisocial, lonesome deviant is pervasive and seemingly indelible. 4. This week, for example, the British tabloids rounded on a child who has been arrested in connection with the hacking of telecommunications provider TalkTalk’s porous servers in order to access customers’ personal data.  5. He is, the description continued, an avid player of video games, as if such a detail distinguishes this particular teenager from any other.

42513

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: 4 introduces an example of a child who has been accused of being a hacker. 2 talks of a tabloid referring to the child and 1 gives the description of the child. 5 continues the ‘description’ mentioned in 1. The remaining sentence 3 should come before 4 as it is a general statement of which 4 introduces an example. So, the correct answer is 34215.

Correct Answer : 34215




Q.29  The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. In the 2011 movie Bridesmaids, Kristin Wiig’s character, a pastry chef, comforts herself in a moment of turmoil by baking an elaborate cupcake alone.  2. A few reviews of the film have scoffed at this scene, annoyed at the feminine cliché: Women have always been bakers.  3. Men fire up the grill and marinate slabs of meat, but historically, baking seems to require two X chromosomes. 4. When the cupcake is finished she sits down, still looking dejected, and eats it. 5. We watch her start from scratch and mix the ingredients, scoop the batter into a single paper liner, and then whip up some frosting and ganache to carefully decorate it.

31542

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: 1 introduces the character played by Kristin Wiig and she baking a cupcake. 5 talks of her starting from scratch and 4 talks of the finished cupcake. These three sentences describe the scene which is referred to in 2. 2 introduces a feminine cliché which is further described in 3. So, the correct answer is 15423.

Correct Answer : 15423




Q.30  The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. To me, a psychotherapist not an entrepreneur, this seemed incomprehensible.  2. This 30% possibility was one I understood. 3. Soon after we met I remember him telling me that he began any deal expecting a 5% chance of it succeeding. 4. This was not fine, he said, but it was better than 5%.  5. But when he was offered a drug trial in America, his own odds of survival were 30%.

31542

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: ‘31’ is a mandatory pair as 1 talks of something that is incomprehensible for the author as she is a psychotherapist and not an entrepreneur while 1 describes that something which is not incomprehensible for an entrepreneur. 5 takes the thought forward by introducing a 30% survival rate. 4 and 2 also talk in reference to the drug trial. 4 talks of the entrepreneur’s view regarding the drug trial followed by the psychotherapist’s observation about the drug trial. 4 can come only after 5 and not 2 because of the reference ‘this’ in 4, and hence, ‘542’ is a mandatory sequence. So, the correct answer is 31542.

Correct Answer : 31542




Q.31  The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer. 1. Barber is the executive chef at the famed Bluehill Restaurant in Manhattan and at Stone Barns in upstate New York, and author of The Third Plate, a book about sustainable cuisine that captures his core belief: instead of just telling people to cut food waste, we should also be using it to make irresistibly tasty dishes. 2. Continuing the theme, in September, he and Sam Kass, former senior advisor for nutrition policy at the White House and now senior food analyst for NBC News, made headlines when they served ‘waste food’ to world leaders meeting at the United Nations. 3. In fact, if you’re experiencing anything other than sublime thoughts when you taste his food, he’ll consider it an unsuccessful dish.  4. To meet this goal, in March, Barber transformed his restaurant into a pop-up called wastED, where he served ‘fried skate-wing cartilage’, ‘pock-marked potatoes’ and ‘carrot top marmalade’, along with other almost-binned fare.  5. Waste is central to Dan Barber’s cooking, and yet, he’d rather you didn’t sense that when you eat it.

x

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: 5 introduces Dan Barber’s cooking and the importance of waste in his cooking. 3 takes the thought forward that the chef does not want you to think of waste while eating his food. 1 gives a formal introduction of Barber and talks of his book which focuses on sustainable cuisine. 4 should follow as it talks of ‘this goal’ which is mentioned in 1. 5 should come after 4 as it talks of continuation of the theme which is described in 4, i.e, serving ‘waste food’. So, the correct sequence in 53142.

Correct Answer : 53142




Q.32  Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.  1. Showcasing a wide variety of street food, Imly is brimming with tangy choices.  2. The long dining area has natural light and outside view through the wide glass panes – typical of trains – gives you the feel of sitting in a railcar.  3. As a true Delhiite one could not ignore the city’s specialities.  4. The luggage racks on the walls add to the atmosphere.  5. Vivek explains, “Tamarind is a common denominator in the side dishes served with street food, hence the name.”

3

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The correct sequence is 2415. All these sentences talk of the restaurant Imly while 3 talks of Delhi’s specialities which is different from the other four sentences.

Correct Answer : 3




Q.33  Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in. 1. Visit this area at night and you’ll see almost no light. 2. The haunted tag might just no longer be associated with it. 3. They curve a little more than normal, their branches are spread out far and wide and they almost create a canopy.  4. What’s spookier is that the deserted stretch has houses that have been empty for a very long time, despite being located in an area where land prices have hit the roof.  5. The first thing you notice about this colony, just off the busy St. Mary’s Road, is the formation of the trees.

2

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The correct sequence is 5314. 5 begins describing the colony and talks of the formation of trees, which is mentioned in 3. 1 takes forward the comparison of trees to a canopy. Amongst 4 and 2, 4 is a better fit because 1 suggests that the place looks spooky at night and 4 talks of what makes the place spookier. 2 talks of discontinuation of the haunted tag. None of the other options talk of why it might get discontinued. So, the odd one out is 2. Also the description of the place in the rest of the passage is ‘spooky’ and the tag of being haunted might just fit the bill.

Correct Answer : 2




Q.34  Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in. 1. I celebrated my birthday last year by packing my bags and leaving for the twin, holy towns, rather than going through the usual routine of a midnight birthday bash and partying till the alcohol starts pouring out of my ears. 2. After a short auto rickshaw ride and a post-lunch siesta, my battery was recharged. 3. Haridwar and Rishikesh are traditionally spiritual getaways, but have enough sights and sounds to excite the agnostic or even the atheistic. 4. Divinity and devotion, both have been taken to a new commercial high here. 5. Boarding an early-morning train from Delhi that was headed to Dehradun, I got down at Haridwar by late lunchtime.

4

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The correct sequence is 3152. 3 introduces the two holy towns and 1 talks of the author’s reason to visit the holy towns. ‘52’ describe the beginning of the journey. 4 is the odd one out as it talks of the commercial aspect of divinity and devotion which is not talked about in any of the other sentences.

Correct Answer : 4

Sec 2

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

Q.35  The revenue of how many companies in Virginia was greater than that of Universal?

a   14

b  15

c  16

d  17

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

Q.36  If the companies given in the table were to be ranked for the state of Virginia i.e. rank 1 for the highest revenue in the state, then which company would hold rank 10?

a   Gannett

b  SLM

c  Owens & Minor

d  NVR

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

Q.37  If the companies given in the table were to be ranked for each city i.e. rank 1 for the highest revenue in that city, which of the following two companies would hold the same rank?

a   DynCorp and Markel

b  Gannett and Genworth Financial

c  Brink’s and Amerigroup

d  Dollar Tree Stores and SLM

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

Q.38  What was the Fortune1000-2013 rank of US Airways Group, a company from some other state in America, with the annual revenue of $ 11, 557 million?

a   84

b  216

c  880

d  Cannot be determined

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows: The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices. I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share. II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day. III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February. The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.   Following additional information is available: A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days. B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.

Q.39  Mittal Steel was taken over by the company that offered the maximum offer price as on 6th February. Identify the company that was successful in taking over Mittal Steel.

a   Tata Steel

b  Modi Steel

c  Essar Steel

d  Nippon Steel

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows: The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices. I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share. II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day. III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February. The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.   Following additional information is available: A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days. B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.

Q.40  Which group of companies had the same absolute change in the offer price on 6th February with respect to 1st February?

a   Tata, JK and Nippon Steel

b  Tata and JK Steel

c  JK and Nippon Steel

d  Tata and Nippon Steel

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows: The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices. I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share. II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day. III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February. The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.   Following additional information is available: A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days. B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.

Q.41  Had the bidding concluded on 5th February, and companies with the top two offer prices not showed interest in taking over the company, which company could have taken over Mittal Steel?

a   Modi Steel

b  JK Steel

c  There will be a tie between Tata Steel and Essar Steel

d  Tata Steel

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows: The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices. I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share. II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day. III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February. The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.   Following additional information is available: A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days. B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.

Q.42  Only those companies with an offer price of more than Rs. 595 on 4th February were considered for further participation. How many companies were not eligible for making bid on 6th February?

a   1

b  2

c  3

d  4

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period. NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.

Q.43  How many graduates joined UltraTech in the year 2001?

a   38

b  56

c  62

d  58

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period. NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.

Q.44  How many post graduates who did not continue their education to become doctorates, did join UltraTech in 2001 and 2002 put together?

a   14

b  13

c  12

d  11

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period. NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.

Q.45  How many employees joined Ultra Tech in the year 2000?

a   58

b  68

c  78

d  85

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period. NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.

Q.46  How many graduates who were not doctorates joined Ultra Tech in 2002?

a   58

b  54

c  62

d  None of these

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day.

Q.47  If Police Patrolling jeep No. 2 had received calls from only three Police Patrolling jeeps, then what could be the lowest possible number of Police Patrolling jeeps from which Police Patrolling jeep No. 7 received calls?

x

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 2




Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day.

Q.48  What could be the maximum possible number of calls that can be made by the Constables?

x

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 19




Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day.

Q.49  If the total number of calls made by all the Inspectors was not less than the total number of calls made by all the Constables and the total number of calls made by all Constables was not less than the total number of calls made by the all the Drivers, then what was the minimum number of calls that could have been made by the Drivers?

x

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 4




Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day.

Q.50  If the total number of calls made by all the Inspectors was not less than the total number of calls made by all the Constables and the total number of calls made by all Constables was not less than the total number of calls made by the all the Drivers, then what was the maximum number of calls that could have been made by the Drivers?

x

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 6




Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells  in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

Q.51  How many numbers used for filling the matrix are numerically greater than the number denoted by C?

5

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 4




Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

Q.52  Find the numerical value of (A + I) - (B + H).

0

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 2




Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

Q.53  If we were to construct another 4 × 4 square matrix containing 16 consecutive natural numbers having the same properties as the given matrix, then which of the following could be a possible value of the sum of the numbers in the cells of any row of this matrix?

a   116

b  144

c  168

d  170

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

Q.54  What is the value of C?

25

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 26




Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below. Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh, Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table. B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse. C. Rakesh is married to Naina. D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav. E. Teena sat on her son's right. F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

Q.55  Who is sitting between Teena and Henny?

a   Rahul

b  Bipin

c  Pankaj

d  Rakesh

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny. Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4). Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6). By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table: 1. Rahul Gupta 2. Henny Bhandari 3. Rakesh Yadav 4. Teena Gupta 5. Pankaj Gupta 6. Naina Gupta 7. Bipin Bhandari 8. Rekha Gupta Rakesh is sitting between Teena and Henny.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below. Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh, Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table. B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse. C. Rakesh is married to Naina. D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav. E. Teena sat on her son's right. F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

Q.56  Who among the following is Rahul Gupta's son?

a   Bipin

b  Rakesh

c  Pankaj

d  Yadav

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny. Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4). Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6). By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table: 1. Rahul Gupta 2. Henny Bhandari 3. Rakesh Yadav 4. Teena Gupta 5. Pankaj Gupta 6. Naina Gupta 7. Bipin Bhandari 8. Rekha Gupta Pankaj is Rahul Gupta’s son.

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below. Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh, Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table. B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse. C. Rakesh is married to Naina. D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav. E. Teena sat on her son's right. F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

Q.57  Who is sitting opposite Rakesh?

a   Rekha

b  Pankaj

c  Henny

d  Bipin

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny. Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4). Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6). By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table: 1. Rahul Gupta 2. Henny Bhandari 3. Rakesh Yadav 4. Teena Gupta 5. Pankaj Gupta 6. Naina Gupta 7. Bipin Bhandari 8. Rekha Gupta Bipin is sitting opposite Rakesh.

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below. Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh, Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table. B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse. C. Rakesh is married to Naina. D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav. E. Teena sat on her son's right. F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

Q.58  Who among the following is Rekha's husband?

a   Rahul

b  Pankaj

c  Rakesh

d  Bipin

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny. Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4). Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6). By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table: 1. Rahul Gupta 2. Henny Bhandari 3. Rakesh Yadav 4. Teena Gupta 5. Pankaj Gupta 6. Naina Gupta 7. Bipin Bhandari 8. Rekha Gupta Pankaj is Rekha’s husband.

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are: These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III. . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM). . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session. . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.

Q.59  In batch I, SM and ITS are taught respectively by

a   Andy Grove and Kiran Deshpande

b  Kiran Deshpande and S.G. Pitroda

c  Andy Grove and S. G. Pitroda

d  Cannot be determined

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are: These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III. . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM). . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session. . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.

Q.60  For batch III, IBM and SM are taught respectively by

a   Narayan Murthy and Andy Grove

b  Kishor Bayani and Andy Grove

c  Narayan Murthy and Kiran Deshpande

d  Kiran Deshpande and Kishor Bayani

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are: These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III. . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM). . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session. . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.

Q.61  Kishor Bayani and Narayan Murthy taught which subjects to batch I?

a   SMkt and LFTD

b  IBM and LFTD

c  SMkt and IBM

d  Cannot be determined

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : b




Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below: A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are: These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III. . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM). . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session. . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.

Q.62  Who among the following takes the last two lectures of batch II?

a   Narayan Murthy and Kishor Bayani

b  Kishor Bayani and S. G. Pitroda

c  Kiran Deshpande and Kishor Bayani

d  Cannot be determined

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below: (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played. (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E. (iii) H was in Group X. (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F. (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J. (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I. (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match. (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively. (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.

Q.63  If D and F played the 1st match and the 5th match respectively, then B played against

a   A

b  L

c  O

d  Either (a), (b) or (c)

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : d




Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below: (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played. (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E. (iii) H was in Group X. (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F. (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J. (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I. (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match. (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively. (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.

Q.64  If A played against I, then O could have played its match against how many teams?

4

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 3




Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below: (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played. (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E. (iii) H was in Group X. (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F. (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J. (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I. (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match. (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively. (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.

Q.65  If A played against I, then which of the following statements was definitely true?

a   B played against L

b  M played its match before P's match

c  Neither (a) nor (b)

d  Both (a) and (b)

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below: (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played. (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E. (iii) H was in Group X. (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F. (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J. (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I. (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match. (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively. (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.

Q.66  The 8th match was played between

a   L and M

b  L and H

c  H and J

d  J and A

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Sec 3

Q.67  Let p, q, r and s be distinct real numbers. Max(a,b) = larger number between a and b, and Min(a,b) = smaller number between a and b. If N = Max[Min(p,q), Min(r,s)] and S = Min[Max(p,r), Max(q,s)], which of the following is definitely true?

a   N ≤ S, for all values of p, q, r and s

b  N ≥ S, for all values of p, q, r and s

c  N ≠ S, for all values of p, q, r and s

d  No specific relation exists between N and S

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Q.68  The digits of a three-digit number in base 11 get reversed when the number is expressed in base 9. Which of the following options gives all such numbers expressed in base 11?

a   243, 467

b  302, 604

c  203, 406

d  203, 406, 609

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : c




Q.69  In the figure given below, triangle ABC is a right angled triangle, in which ∠B = 90°, AB = 4 cm, BC = 3 cm and DE = EF. If BE is extended to meet AC at G, find the length of AG.

a   15/7cm

b  20/7cm

c  35/14cm

d  5/2cm

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : b




Q.70  In a group of four boys, each of them has a certain number of Re. 1 coins with him. Every boy has an amount that is an integral multiple of the amount possessed by every other boy who has an amount less than him. If the total amount with the four boys put together is Rs. 70, and no two boys have the same amount, what is the minimum possible amount with the boy who has the maximum number of Rs. 1 coins with him?

56

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 48




Q.71  Find the remainder when 7777 .... (upto 37 digits) is divided by 19.

7

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 7




Q.72

8

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 6




Q.73  Shalini and Swati start running from S towards a platform PQ, as shown below. Shalini, who is slower between the two, is given an advantage of running along the line that is perpendicular to PQ, while Swati runs at an angle to that line. The speed (in km/hr) of each of the two is a two-digit natural number. The speed of Shalini is obtained by reversing the digits of the speed of Swati. Each of them takes 1 hr to reach the platform. If the distance between them along the platform, when they just reach to it, is also a two digit integer, find that distance.

a   33 kms

b  44 kms

c  56 kms

d  65 kms

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Q.74  There are four positive integers a, b, c and d such that a + b + c + d + abcd = m and (abc + bcd + acd + abd) + (ab + bc + bd + ac +ad + cd) = (1154 - m). Find the value of m.

512

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : 502




Q.75  In the figure given below, ABCD is a concave quadrilateral, and ∠BAD = 90°, BA = AD = 6 cm and BC = CD = 5 cm. What is the length (in cm) of the line segment AC?

a   3 √2

b  3 √2 - √5

c  3 √2 - √7

d  2 √2 - 3

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : c




Directions for questions 76 and 77: Each of the following questions is followed by two statements, I and II. Mark the answer by using the following instructions: Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone. Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone. Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone. Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Q.76

a

b

c

d

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : a




Directions for questions 76 and 77: Each of the following questions is followed by two statements, I and II. Mark the answer by using the following instructions: Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone. Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone. Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone. Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Q.77

a

b

c

d

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution:

Correct Answer : b




Q.78  If a = 2x × 3y and b = 2l × 3m, where x, y, l and m are distinct positive integers, what is the probability that a/b is an integer ?

a   1/2

b  1/6

c  1/4

d  3/4

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Correct Answer : c




Q.79  Seven engineering graduates are working on a certain number of projects, with exactly three engineers working on each project. If no pair of projects has more than one engineer working on both the projects, what is the maximum possible number of projects that are being handled by the seven engineers?

a   5

b  6

c  7

d  8

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Correct Answer : c




Q.80

a   a > b

b  b > c

c  c > a

d  None of these

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Correct Answer : d




Q.81  For which of the following values of m, does the inequality  where x and y are real numbers greater than zero, definitely hold true?

a   4.8

b  6

c  5

d  5.9

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Correct Answer : b




Q.82  PQRS is a quadrilateral. If line RS is a tangent to the circle having diameter PQ and line PQ is a tangent to the circle having diameter RS, which of the following is definitely true?

a   PS is always parallel to RQ.

b  PS is always equal to RQ.

c  PQ is always equal to RS.

d

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Correct Answer : a




Q.83  On the bank of a river, there are two temples A and B. The river has some magical powers by which it triples the quantity of flowers put into it. Pankaj takes some flowers and puts them into the river. Then he divides them into n equal groups and offers one of the groups at temple A. He puts the remaining flowers into the river again and, again, forms n equal groups and offers one of these groups at temple B. The ratio of the number of flowers offered at temple A and the number of flowers remaining after the offering at temple B is 1 : 12.5. Find the value of n.

a   5

b  6

c  3

d  9

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Correct Answer : b




Q.84

a   172.8 sq. units

b

c

d  Cannot be determined

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Correct Answer : d




Q.85  The co-ordinates of three vertices of rectangle ABCD are A (0, -2), B (8, -2) and C (8, 2). P and Q start running, simultaneously, from vertices B and D, respectively towards each other along BD, and meet at E. The ratio of their speeds was ρ. If the coordinates of E are integers, which of the following equations satisfies all the possible values of ρ?

a

b

c

d

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Correct Answer : a




Q.86  If all the roots of the equation (x - m)2 (x - 10) + 4 = 0 are integers, find the number of distinct integral values that 'm' can have.

3

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Correct Answer : 3




Q.87  Given f(a) = a2 - 4 (for all real a) is a function in 'a'. For which of the following values of 'a', will the equation f(a - 1)x2 + f(a)x + f(a + 1) = 0 have two real and distinct roots?

a   -1

b  -16/5

c  -4/5

d  -5/2

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Correct Answer : d




Q.88  N is an integer not equal to 1 such that  If N is a perfect square and x is an integer greater than 1, then what is the minimum possible value of N?

9

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Correct Answer : 9




Q.89  Two sets of equi-spaced parallel lines (having atleast three lines in each set) are drawn such that they intersect each other at right angles, resulting in a square grid of numerous small square shaped cells. If two cells share a common side, then they are called adjacent cells. If, in each of these cells, a natural number is written such that it is the arithmetic mean of the numbers written in all its adjacent cells, then which of the following statements is necessarily true?

a   At least two of the numbers are distinct.

b  No two numbers are equal.

c  All the numbers are equal.

d  Exactly two of the numbers are equal.

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Correct Answer : c




Q.90

a

b

c

d

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Correct Answer : d




Q.91  Find the coefficient of x51 in the expansion of the expression : (x - 2).[x(x + 4) (x + 8) (x + 12) ... (x + 200)]

a   5098

b  5100

c  5102

d  5000

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Correct Answer : a




Q.92  On 21 June 2006, the product of Anuj's age (in months) as on his last birthday and his present age (in months) was 2640. Find Anuj's date of birth.

a   21 November 2001

b  21 January 2001

c  21 November 2002

d  21 January 2002

Bookmark  Answer key/Solution Solution: The difference between Anuj’s age as on his last birthday and his current age (both in months) is less than 12 months. Resolving the product 2640 into factors, it can be observed that (48 × 55) is the only possibility. Hence, when Anuj celebrated his last birthday he was 48 months old which was 7 months back. Thus, Anuj’s birth date is November 21, 2001.

Correct Answer : a




Q.93  If x, y and z are positive integers, such that x + y + z = 60 and x2 + y2 = z2, then how many ordered triplets (x, y, z) exist?

2

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Correct Answer : 2




Q.94

a   1 : 1 : 1

b  1 : 1 : 2

c  1 : 2 : 3

d  None of these

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Correct Answer : b




Q.95  Seven blank spaces are numbered I, II, III, IV, V, VI and VII from left to right. The first seven natural numbers have to be filled in these blank spaces such that they abide by the following rules: (i) All the numbers preceding the number placed in blank space IV are either in increasing order or decreasing order, when we move from left to right. (ii) All the numbers succeeding the number placed in blank space IV are either in increasing order or decreasing order, when we move from left to right. In how many ways this can be done?

a   460

b  560

c  620

d  700

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Correct Answer : b




Q.96  The equation x4 + ax2 + bx - 15 = 0 has 4 real integral solutions. Which among the following is a possible value of b?

a   -15

b  18

c  -32

d  None of these

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Correct Answer : c




Q.97  A few newly-wed couples plan to go to Mauritius for their honeymoon. The price of the group package (consisting of a return trip to and fro Mauritius and including 3 days and 3 nights stay at a five star hotel) lies in the range of Rs. 46,200 and Rs. 47,000. However, due to some reason, one couple could not go, due to which each of the remaining couples had to shell out Rs. 3888 extra (because the price of the group package did not change). If the cost of the package was equally shared among the couples, then find the exact price of the package.

a   Rs. 46,656

b  Rs. 46,665

c  Rs. 46,500

d  Rs. 46,750

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Correct Answer : a




Q.98  In the given figure, AC = BC and AB = 20 cm. If E is the mid point of BC and area of  cm, then find the area of triangle ABD.

a   60 sq. cm

b  150 sq. cm

c  100√2 sq. cm

d  66.66 sq. cm

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Correct Answer : a




Q.99  A basket containing a certain number of oranges and apples costs Rs. 248. If 1 apple is added to the basket, the average cost per fruit in the basket increases by Rs. 2 and if 1 orange is added to the basket, the average cost per fruit in the basket decreases by Rs. 1. It is also known that if 2 apples are replaced with 2 oranges, the average cost per fruit in the basket becomes Rs. 16. Find the total number of fruits in the basket initially.

13

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Correct Answer : 11




Q.100  'S' is a region enclosing all such points (x, y) in the X-Y plane, whose distance from the origin is less than or equal to 3√2 units. The number of points, in the region 'S', with integer co-ordinates is

61

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Correct Answer : 61