Saturday, 5 March 2016

CL - 1521

Solutions of Mock CAT - 21 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

  • VRC
  • LRDI
  • QA
    •  

    Sec 1

    Directions for questions 1 to 3: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The young are given to analysis; they love to sift every issue threadbare with passionate scepticism and eager competence. The elderly tell stories. Fortunately for the latter, in recent years stories have become respectable in the social sciences, more so after some people have cleverly begun to call them narratives. However, listening to Indian stories can be trying, even in these post-modern days. Most of them lack a proper ending - this is no longer a crime, I am told - but they are also often not new, which is still an unforgivable sin in the global culture of knowledge. As with classical plays and ritual narrations of epics and sacred myths, these stories create their own surprises in the process of being re-told. So I need not apologise if you find my story is not new and lacks a proper ending; I shall apologise only if you find that I have not told it right.

    This is actually a story about stories. It begins with the awareness that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is a certain ambivalence towards democratic politics. While drawing sustenance from traditions, democratic politics is also expected to alter and update such societies for the contemporary world. These countries have reportedly fallen behind in the race that all countries these days breathlessly run to stay where they stand in the global Olympiad of nation-states. One enters this race not just with a political style which reflects specific cultural traditions, but also with a political process seeking to become a legitimate force of cultural change and promising to mediate between hope and experience, inherited fears and acquired ambitions. The contending stories of politics and traditions frame this process. They contain the ambivalence and anxieties associated with democracy, and they help construct the past in a way that makes possible meaningful political choices in the present.

    Such stories also have shelf lives. They are born and they die; some after a long and glorious life, others after a brief, inglorious tenure. For instance, scholars of Indian political culture have, off and on, ventured the story of a stable culture facing an alien political order and, on the whole, unable to make much sense of it. Their idea of Indian politics as a straightforward reflection of Hindu culture and personality now looks jaded not because of the passage of time and academic fashions, but because a different political situation has now gripped the pubic imagination - that of a culture being literally bombarded by new global challenges and trying to maintain its identity in the face of these. Likewise, the competing stories that others have produced - of cultural and psychological forces as epiphenomena, and of Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas in order to establish the supremacy of a historically superior order - have not survived well either. The global resurgence of religion and ethnicity has taken better care of such economic determinism than have their academic opponents. In both cases, the truth or falsity of such stories is of secondary importance; more important is the fact that neither rings true in the present global context.
      Q.1 
    Why is there ambivalence towards democratic politics in societies like those of China and India?
    a   Because these societies are rigidly hierarchical and therefore cannot progress while simultaneously committing to democratic principles.
    b  Because China and India are demographically plural and therefore cannot follow the concept of one-nation democracy.
    c  Because these ancient societies look to sustain their tradition while also modifying and updating it through the process of democratic politics.
    d  Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Refer to the second paragraph of the passage. The author has mentioned that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is some ambivalence towards democratic politics. However, he has not mentioned the cause of this ambivalence. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 1 to 3: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The young are given to analysis; they love to sift every issue threadbare with passionate scepticism and eager competence. The elderly tell stories. Fortunately for the latter, in recent years stories have become respectable in the social sciences, more so after some people have cleverly begun to call them narratives. However, listening to Indian stories can be trying, even in these post-modern days. Most of them lack a proper ending - this is no longer a crime, I am told - but they are also often not new, which is still an unforgivable sin in the global culture of knowledge. As with classical plays and ritual narrations of epics and sacred myths, these stories create their own surprises in the process of being re-told. So I need not apologise if you find my story is not new and lacks a proper ending; I shall apologise only if you find that I have not told it right.

    This is actually a story about stories. It begins with the awareness that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is a certain ambivalence towards democratic politics. While drawing sustenance from traditions, democratic politics is also expected to alter and update such societies for the contemporary world. These countries have reportedly fallen behind in the race that all countries these days breathlessly run to stay where they stand in the global Olympiad of nation-states. One enters this race not just with a political style which reflects specific cultural traditions, but also with a political process seeking to become a legitimate force of cultural change and promising to mediate between hope and experience, inherited fears and acquired ambitions. The contending stories of politics and traditions frame this process. They contain the ambivalence and anxieties associated with democracy, and they help construct the past in a way that makes possible meaningful political choices in the present.

    Such stories also have shelf lives. They are born and they die; some after a long and glorious life, others after a brief, inglorious tenure. For instance, scholars of Indian political culture have, off and on, ventured the story of a stable culture facing an alien political order and, on the whole, unable to make much sense of it. Their idea of Indian politics as a straightforward reflection of Hindu culture and personality now looks jaded not because of the passage of time and academic fashions, but because a different political situation has now gripped the pubic imagination - that of a culture being literally bombarded by new global challenges and trying to maintain its identity in the face of these. Likewise, the competing stories that others have produced - of cultural and psychological forces as epiphenomena, and of Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas in order to establish the supremacy of a historically superior order - have not survived well either. The global resurgence of religion and ethnicity has taken better care of such economic determinism than have their academic opponents. In both cases, the truth or falsity of such stories is of secondary importance; more important is the fact that neither rings true in the present global context.
      Q.2 
    The author uses the word 'epiphenomena' to suggest
    a   obvious reasons for the occurrence of a phenomenon.
    b  a secondary effect or by-product of a phenomenon.
    c  adverse factors that hinder progress.
    d  None of these
    Solution:
    Epiphenomenon means a secondary effect or by-product. The author talks about cultural and psychological forces as by-products and also mentions Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas. Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 1 to 3: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The young are given to analysis; they love to sift every issue threadbare with passionate scepticism and eager competence. The elderly tell stories. Fortunately for the latter, in recent years stories have become respectable in the social sciences, more so after some people have cleverly begun to call them narratives. However, listening to Indian stories can be trying, even in these post-modern days. Most of them lack a proper ending - this is no longer a crime, I am told - but they are also often not new, which is still an unforgivable sin in the global culture of knowledge. As with classical plays and ritual narrations of epics and sacred myths, these stories create their own surprises in the process of being re-told. So I need not apologise if you find my story is not new and lacks a proper ending; I shall apologise only if you find that I have not told it right.

    This is actually a story about stories. It begins with the awareness that in ancient societies like China and India, which possess resilient cultural traditions, there is a certain ambivalence towards democratic politics. While drawing sustenance from traditions, democratic politics is also expected to alter and update such societies for the contemporary world. These countries have reportedly fallen behind in the race that all countries these days breathlessly run to stay where they stand in the global Olympiad of nation-states. One enters this race not just with a political style which reflects specific cultural traditions, but also with a political process seeking to become a legitimate force of cultural change and promising to mediate between hope and experience, inherited fears and acquired ambitions. The contending stories of politics and traditions frame this process. They contain the ambivalence and anxieties associated with democracy, and they help construct the past in a way that makes possible meaningful political choices in the present.

    Such stories also have shelf lives. They are born and they die; some after a long and glorious life, others after a brief, inglorious tenure. For instance, scholars of Indian political culture have, off and on, ventured the story of a stable culture facing an alien political order and, on the whole, unable to make much sense of it. Their idea of Indian politics as a straightforward reflection of Hindu culture and personality now looks jaded not because of the passage of time and academic fashions, but because a different political situation has now gripped the pubic imagination - that of a culture being literally bombarded by new global challenges and trying to maintain its identity in the face of these. Likewise, the competing stories that others have produced - of cultural and psychological forces as epiphenomena, and of Indian politics as a sequence of modern economic forms vanquishing traditional structures of behaviour and ideas in order to establish the supremacy of a historically superior order - have not survived well either. The global resurgence of religion and ethnicity has taken better care of such economic determinism than have their academic opponents. In both cases, the truth or falsity of such stories is of secondary importance; more important is the fact that neither rings true in the present global context.
      Q.3 
    As per the passage, countries participate in the global Olympiad with which of the following?
    a   A political style reflective of specific cultural traditions.
    b  An identical political style, common to all countries, to ensure that they can perform equally.
    c  A political process that seeks to become a force capable of affecting a cultural change.
    d  Both (a) and (c)
    Solution:
    Refer to the second paragraph. Options (a) and (c) follow from this. Option (b) is straightaway ruled out as the passage states that countries participating in the global Olympiad have their own political style which reflects specific cultural traditions. Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 4 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Recently, revolution in reproductive technology has attracted wide attention as controversy centered, initially, on the premise that genetic cloning techniques could create new, possibly dangerous forms of life. Attention next focused on the power of genetic engineering to produce valuable new medical and agricultural products. Largely overlooked, however, are developments that will ultimately have far greater social impact: the ability to analyse genetic information will allow the prediction of human traits. While some fear that by analysing the entire library of human gene sequences we will discover the essence of humanity, this is unlikely. Our bodies are complex networks of interacting components, influenced by a variable environment. Nevertheless, genes do help determine aspects of human form and function. Herein lie the seeds of future problems.

    By about the year 2005, barring unforeseen technical obstacles, scientists will have fully mapped the complex human genetic terrain. Before this, however, new information will make possible techniques that will engender a host of ethical issues. Imagine that investigators could predict with some accuracy such aspects of human behaviour or functioning as intelligence, shyness, aggressiveness, or heat tolerance. Consider the power this would give to some and the vulnerable position in which it would put others. 

    Even if society can anticipate and control most misuse of genetic data, we face a more insidious problem: a rising ethic of genetic determinism. For the past century, ideological currents have closely affected the nature versus nurture debate.

    Widespread rejection of social Darwinism and institutionalized racism has buoyed the strong naturist sentiments of the past half century, but a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition. Such an uncritical embrace of genetics will not be checked by scientists' reminders that the powers of genetic predictions are limited. Environmental variations can cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different ways, and genetics will at best suggest only a probability of development for complex traits, such as those involved in behaviour and cognition. Those overlooking this will disastrously misjudge individual ability.

    What a tragedy this would be! We Americans have viewed our roots as interesting historical relics, hardly as rigid molds dictating all that we are and will be. Moreover, a belief that each of us is responsible for our own behaviour has woven our social fabric. Yet, in coming years, we will hear increasingly from those attributing 'bad' behaviour to inexorable biological forces. As a biologist, I find this a bitter prospect. The biological revolution of the past decades will spawn enormous benefits, but we will pay a very heavy price unless we craft an ethic that cherishes our spontaneity, unpredictability, and individual uniqueness.
      Q.4 
    Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
    a   The relation between science and society leads to complex ethical questions that may either benefit or impair the development of each.
    b  Society will ultimately understand that environmental conditions may cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different directions.
    c  The ability to analyse human genetic make-up could lead to a dangerous belief in genes as determinants of who we are and how we think.
    d  The ability to analyse complex genetic information will ultimately lead to a fundamental understanding of human form and function.
    Solution:
    Option (c) correctly covers the passage's topic, scope and point of view. Option (a) goes beyond the scope of the passage while option (b) makes an unsupported assumption. Option (d) misses the core of the passage. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 4 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Recently, revolution in reproductive technology has attracted wide attention as controversy centered, initially, on the premise that genetic cloning techniques could create new, possibly dangerous forms of life. Attention next focused on the power of genetic engineering to produce valuable new medical and agricultural products. Largely overlooked, however, are developments that will ultimately have far greater social impact: the ability to analyse genetic information will allow the prediction of human traits. While some fear that by analysing the entire library of human gene sequences we will discover the essence of humanity, this is unlikely. Our bodies are complex networks of interacting components, influenced by a variable environment. Nevertheless, genes do help determine aspects of human form and function. Herein lie the seeds of future problems.

    By about the year 2005, barring unforeseen technical obstacles, scientists will have fully mapped the complex human genetic terrain. Before this, however, new information will make possible techniques that will engender a host of ethical issues. Imagine that investigators could predict with some accuracy such aspects of human behaviour or functioning as intelligence, shyness, aggressiveness, or heat tolerance. Consider the power this would give to some and the vulnerable position in which it would put others. 

    Even if society can anticipate and control most misuse of genetic data, we face a more insidious problem: a rising ethic of genetic determinism. For the past century, ideological currents have closely affected the nature versus nurture debate.

    Widespread rejection of social Darwinism and institutionalized racism has buoyed the strong naturist sentiments of the past half century, but a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition. Such an uncritical embrace of genetics will not be checked by scientists' reminders that the powers of genetic predictions are limited. Environmental variations can cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different ways, and genetics will at best suggest only a probability of development for complex traits, such as those involved in behaviour and cognition. Those overlooking this will disastrously misjudge individual ability.

    What a tragedy this would be! We Americans have viewed our roots as interesting historical relics, hardly as rigid molds dictating all that we are and will be. Moreover, a belief that each of us is responsible for our own behaviour has woven our social fabric. Yet, in coming years, we will hear increasingly from those attributing 'bad' behaviour to inexorable biological forces. As a biologist, I find this a bitter prospect. The biological revolution of the past decades will spawn enormous benefits, but we will pay a very heavy price unless we craft an ethic that cherishes our spontaneity, unpredictability, and individual uniqueness.
      Q.5 
    The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following predictions about the biological revolution discussed in the passage?
    a   The revolution will lead to gross injustices in society.
    b  The revolution will bring greater good than harm to society.
    c  The revolution will not be as far-reaching as some believe.
    d  The revolution may be problematic as well as beneficial.
    Solution:
    Refer to the last sentence of the passage. The author sums up his view in this line and option (d) is a direct paraphrase of this line. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 4 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Recently, revolution in reproductive technology has attracted wide attention as controversy centered, initially, on the premise that genetic cloning techniques could create new, possibly dangerous forms of life. Attention next focused on the power of genetic engineering to produce valuable new medical and agricultural products. Largely overlooked, however, are developments that will ultimately have far greater social impact: the ability to analyse genetic information will allow the prediction of human traits. While some fear that by analysing the entire library of human gene sequences we will discover the essence of humanity, this is unlikely. Our bodies are complex networks of interacting components, influenced by a variable environment. Nevertheless, genes do help determine aspects of human form and function. Herein lie the seeds of future problems.

    By about the year 2005, barring unforeseen technical obstacles, scientists will have fully mapped the complex human genetic terrain. Before this, however, new information will make possible techniques that will engender a host of ethical issues. Imagine that investigators could predict with some accuracy such aspects of human behaviour or functioning as intelligence, shyness, aggressiveness, or heat tolerance. Consider the power this would give to some and the vulnerable position in which it would put others. 

    Even if society can anticipate and control most misuse of genetic data, we face a more insidious problem: a rising ethic of genetic determinism. For the past century, ideological currents have closely affected the nature versus nurture debate.

    Widespread rejection of social Darwinism and institutionalized racism has buoyed the strong naturist sentiments of the past half century, but a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition. Such an uncritical embrace of genetics will not be checked by scientists' reminders that the powers of genetic predictions are limited. Environmental variations can cause genetically similar individuals to develop in dramatically different ways, and genetics will at best suggest only a probability of development for complex traits, such as those involved in behaviour and cognition. Those overlooking this will disastrously misjudge individual ability.

    What a tragedy this would be! We Americans have viewed our roots as interesting historical relics, hardly as rigid molds dictating all that we are and will be. Moreover, a belief that each of us is responsible for our own behaviour has woven our social fabric. Yet, in coming years, we will hear increasingly from those attributing 'bad' behaviour to inexorable biological forces. As a biologist, I find this a bitter prospect. The biological revolution of the past decades will spawn enormous benefits, but we will pay a very heavy price unless we craft an ethic that cherishes our spontaneity, unpredictability, and individual uniqueness.
      Q.6 
    The author mentions the nature-versus-nurture debate primarily in order to
    a   demonstrate the difficulty of predicting and preventing misuse of scientific data.
    b  supply a point of reference for an assessment of the validity of recent advances in genetics.
    c  cast doubt on the moral integrity of society.
    d  illustrate that many people are likely to believe that genetics determines our behavior and ability.
    Solution:
    Refer to paragraphs three and four. The author states that "...a growing proportion of the public, impressed by the successes of genetics, is likely to come to view genes as determinants of the human condition". Option (d) follows from this. Option (a) contradicts the idea presented in the first line of the third paragraph. Assessing the validity of recent advances in genetics has not been mentioned in the passage. Option (c) is irrelevant. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.'

    Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'.

    How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it.

    Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair. 

    Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.
      Q.7 
    Which of the following is not true with regard to estrangement, according to the author?
    a   It is a cause of the negativity currently pervading philosophy.
    b  It makes incorrect pretensions to answer all the questions of life.
    c  It results in despair, affecting scientific as well as ontological thinkers.
    d  It is caused by lack of knowledge about the purpose of life.
    Solution:
    One of the effects of estrangement is "the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching" and it is this which pretends to answer all questions. So, option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) can be inferred from the first sentence of the second paragraph. Option (c) can be inferred from the fifth sentence of the second paragraph which talks of religious thinkers, mathematicians and scientists. Option (d) can be inferred from the sixth sentence of the second paragraph which states that we lack knowledge about what to do.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.'

    Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'.

    How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it.

    Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair. 

    Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.
      Q.8 
    The author agrees with all of the following except that
    a   education leads to transmission of ideas which enables man to make his choices.
    b  scientific ideas are useful for the interpretation of life.
    c  it takes about three-four generations from the birth of an idea for it to reach its maturity.
    d  science tells man little about the meaning of life.
    Solution:
    The author is likely to agree with options (a), (c) and (d) as they are supported by the closing lines of paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 respectively. In paragraph 4, the author clearly mentions that the ideas of science are completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or to the interpretation of the world. Option (b) contradicts this and hence, is the right answer.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.'

    Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'.

    How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it.

    Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair. 

    Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.
      Q.9 
    What, according to the author, could hold the key towards making human life and the world intelligible?
    a   Technological advancement
    b  Education
    c  Humanities
    d  Second law of thermodynamics
    Solution:
    Refer to paragraph 5. It is clear that the author thinks that humanities hold the key to making human life and the world intelligible. Thus, option (c) is the right answer.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.'

    Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'.

    How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it.

    Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair. 

    Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.
      Q.10 
    The author is most likely to be
    a   a philosopher.
    b  a scientist.
    c  a litterateur.
    d  a syndicated columnist.
    Solution:
    The author stresses that science only gives us limited knowledge and does not make our life more intelligible. He also mentions various thinkers and uses their ideas to build his argument. Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.'

    Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'.

    How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it.

    Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair. 

    Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.
      Q.11 
    The author uses the Second Law of Thermodynamics to
    a   illustrate his argument about the little purpose of scientific know-how in the experience and interpretation of the world.
    b  argue that educated people deplore the illiteracy of scientists.
    c  demonstrate the importance of the Second Law of Thermodynamics to human life.
    d  draw a parallel between Shakespeare's works and the Second Law of Thermodynamics.
    Solution:
    Refer to paragraph 3. Option (a) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Bertrand Russell said that the whole universe is simply 'the outcome of accidental collocations of atoms' and claimed that the scientific theories leading to this conclusion 'if not quite beyond dispute, are yet so nearly certain, that no philosophy that rejects them can hope to stand. . . Only on the firm foundation of unyielding despair can the soul's habitation henceforth be safely built'. Sir Fred Hoyle, the astronomer, talks of 'the truly dreadful situation in which we find ourselves. Here we are in this wholly fantastic universe with scarcely a clue as to whether our existence has any real significance.'

    Estrangement breeds loneliness and despair, the 'encounter with nothingness', cynicism, empty gestures of defiance, as we can see in the greater part of existentialist philosophy and general literature today. Or it suddenly turns - as I have mentioned before - into the ardent adoption of a fanatical teaching which, by a monstrous simplification of reality, pretends to answer all questions. So what is the cause of estrangement? Never has science been more triumphant; never has man's power over his environment been more complete, nor his progress faster. It cannot be a lack of know-how that causes the despair not only of religious thinkers like Kierkegaard but also of leading mathematicians and scientists like Russell and Hoyle. We know how to do many things, but do we know what to do? Ortega & Gasset put it succinctly: "We cannot live on the human level without ideas. Upon them depends what we do. Living is nothing more or less than doing one thing instead of another." What, then, is education? It is the transmission of ideas which enables man to choose between one thing and another, or, to quote Ortega again, 'to live a life which is something above meaningless tragedy or inward disgrace'.

    How could, for instance, knowledge of the Second Law of Thermodynamics help us in this? Lord Snow tells us that when educated people deplore the 'illiteracy of scientists' he sometimes asks, "How many of them could describe the Second Law of Thermodynamics?" The response, he reports, is usually cold and negative. "Yet," he says, "I was asking something which is about the scientific equivalent of: have you read a work of Shakespeare's?" Such a statement challenges the entire basis of our civilisation. What matters is the tool-box of ideas with which, by which, through which, we experience and interpret the world. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is nothing more than a working hypothesis suitable for various types of scientific research. On the other hand - a work by Shakespeare, teems with the most vital ideas about the inner development of man, shows the whole grandeur and misery of a human existence. How could these two things be equivalent? What do I miss, as a human being, if I have never heard of the Second Law of Thermodynamics? The answer is: nothing. And what do I miss by not knowing Shakespeare? Unless I get my understanding from another source, I simply miss my life. Shall we tell our children that one thing is as good as another - here a bit of knowledge of physics, and there a bit of knowledge of literature? If we do so the sins of the fathers will be visited upon the children unto the third and fourth generation, because that normally is the time it takes from the birth of an idea to its full maturity when it fills the minds of a new generation and makes them think by it.

    Science cannot produce ideas by which we could live. Even the greatest ideas of science are nothing more than working hypotheses, useful for purposes of special research but completely inapplicable to the conduct of our lives or the interpretation of the world. If, therefore, a man seeks education because he feels estranged and bewildered, because his life seems to him empty and meaningless, he cannot get what he is seeking by studying any of the natural sciences, i.e. by acquiring 'know-how'. That study has its own value which I am not inclined to belittle; it tells him a great deal about how things work in nature or in engineering: but it tells him nothing about the meaning of life and can in no way cure his estrangement and secret despair. 

    Where, then, shall he turn? Maybe, in spite of all that he hears about the scientific revolution and ours being an age of science, he turns to the so-called humanities. Here indeed he can find, if he is lucky, great and vital ideas to fill his mind, ideas with which to think and through which to make the world, society, and his own life intelligible.
      Q.12 
    The passage quotes all of the following except
    a   Fred Hoyle
    b  Lord Snow
    c  Ortega & Gasset
    d  Kierkegaard
    Solution:
    Though Kierkegaard's name has been mentioned in paragraph 2, no quotation in the passage can be attributed to him. Hence, option (d) is the right answer.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance. 

    Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune.

    The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.
      Q.13 
    According to the passage, which of the following best summarizes the story of Orestes?
    a   Orestes, due to his ability to stand for his actions, was able to free his clan of the curse and win the friendship of both Apollo and the benevolent Eumenides.
    b  The story of Orestes, his dilemma, his sins, and his subsequent acquittal prove the benefits of accepting complete responsibility for one’s actions.
    c  Orestes, despite his dilemma, does what he must do. Then he accepts the responsibility for his action. This, in turn, turns a new chapter in the history of his clan.
    d  Orestes blames the curse for committing matricide and, in the process, frees his clan of the curse forever with the help of Apollo.
    Solution:
    Option (b) is a conclusion of the passage and the story alone can’t give us sufficient data to reach the conclusion. Option (d) is misleading. Orestes doesn’t blame the curse. Option (a) is wrong because the passage doesn’t talk about the friendship between Orestes and Apollo. So, option (c) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance. 

    Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune.

    The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.
      Q.14 
    Which of the following option best describes the style of the author in the passage?
    a   Sermonizing
    b  Hortatory
    c  Lugubrious
    d  Examining
    Solution:
    The author doesn’t have a patronizing style. So, option (a) is not the answer. The tone is not gloomy. So, option (c) is not the answer. 'Hortatory' means exhorting or strongly advising. Hence, option (b) can not be the answer. The author analyzes a particular myth and applies it to another situation. Hence, option (d) is the best answer.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance. 

    Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune.

    The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.
      Q.15 
    Based on the passage, which characteristic best describes Orestes:
    a   Pragmatic
    b  Resilient
    c  Phlegmatic
    d  Conscientious
    Solution:
    Orestes takes full moral responsibility for his action. He doesn’t blame others. Hence he is conscientious. 'Resilient' means flexible. 'Pragmatic' means to be practical. 'Phlegmatic' means to behave in a stoic manner. These options do not fit the context of the passage.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance. 

    Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune.

    The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.
      Q.16 
    Which of the following best summarizes the structure of the passage?
    a   The author begins with an explicitly stated premise and then goes on to mitigate it.
    b  The author analyzes the perks of following a particular behavioral pattern.
    c  The author evaluates the perks associated with a particular healing process.
    d  The author urges the readers to follow a favourable path mentioned in the form of a parable.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is wrong because the author doesn’t mitigate his premise. He simply analyzes it. Option (d) is wrong because the author doesn’t urge the readers to follow any path. The term parable is misleading too. Option (c) talks about the healing process. The author simply talks about the beginning of the healing process. However, the author does analyze the benefits of accepting responsibility for one’s symptoms. Hence, option (b) is correct.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance. 

    Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune.

    The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.
      Q.17 
    What symbolizes the relationship between grace and mental illness?
    a   Orestes claiming responsibility for his actions without blaming the gods.
    b  The torture inflicted upon Orestes due to the nature of the Furies.
    c  The transformation of the Furies into Eumenides, completely reversing their purpose.
    d  Orestes being forgiven even though he committed the greatest Greek sin of matricide.
    Solution:
    The act of claiming responsibility brought Orestes the gods’ amazement, so option (a) is not relevant to the question. In option (b), the Furies are used as a metaphor for mental illness, but grace is not mentioned. Option (d) confirms that Orestes committed a grave sin, but bears no relation to the question. Option (c) is correct because the last paragraph makes it crystal clear that the Furies and Eumenides are portrayals of mental illness and grace, respectively.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 13 to 18:The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The relationship between grace and mental illness is beautifully embodied in the great Greek myth of Orestes and the Furies. Orestes was a grandson of Atreus, a man who had viciously attempted to prove himself more powerful than the gods. Because of his crime against them, the gods punished Atreus by placing a curse upon all his descendants. As part of the enactment of this curse upon the House of Atreus, Orestes’ mother, Clytemnestra, murdered his father and her husband, Agamemnon. This crime in turn brought down the curse upon Orestes’ head, because by the Greek code of honor a son was obliged, above all else, to slay his father’s murderer. Yet the greatest sin a Greek could commit was the sin of matricide. Orestes agonized over his dilemma. Finally he did what he seemingly had to do and killed his mother. For this sin the gods then punished Orestes by visiting upon him the Furies, three ghastly harpies who could be seen and heard only by him and who tormented him night and day with their cackling criticism and frightening appearance. 

    Pursued wherever he went by the Furies, Orestes wandered about the land seeking to atone for his crime. After many years of lonely reflection and self-abrogation Orestes requested the gods to relieve him of the curse on the House of Atreus and its visitations upon him through the Furies, stating his belief that he had succeeded in atoning for the murder of his mother. A trial was held by the gods. Speaking in Orestes’ defense, Apollo argued that he had engineered the whole situation that had placed Orestes in the position in which he had no choice but to kill his mother, and therefore Orestes really could not be held responsible. At this point Orestes jumped up and contradicted his own defender, stating, “It was I, not Apollo, that murdered my mother!” The gods were amazed. Never before had a member of the House of Atreus assumed such total responsibility for himself and not blamed the gods. Eventually the gods decided the trial in Orestes’ favor, and not only relieved him of the curse upon the House of Atreus but also transformed the Furies into the Eumenides, loving spirits who through their wise counsel enabled Orestes to obtain continuing good fortune.

    The meaning of this myth is not obscure. The Eumenides are also referred to as ‘the bearers of grace’. The hallucinatory Furies represent the private hell of mental illness. However, Orestes did not blame his family, nor the gods or fate, as he well might have. Instead, he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom.
      Q.18 
    What is the main idea that the author presents by relating the myth of Orestes?
    a   A person who owns up for his crimes is almost always acquitted by competent judges.
    b  A person who regrets his sins and expresses remorse deserves to be freed of guilt.
    c  A person who accepts responsibility and repents his actions is worthy of being given a saving grace.
    d  A person who has gone through personal anguish is eligible for exalted status.
    Solution:
    The last paragraph states that “he accepted his condition as one of his own making and undertook the effort to heal it, and through this healing process of his own effort, the very things that had caused him agony became the things that brought him wisdom”, thus making option (c) correct. Option (a) would make simple confession a basis for acquittal, which is not the author’s idea of justice. Option (b) mentions the regret that a sinner must feel, but that person’s freedom from guilt can only come if he tries to heal the sins instead of just expressing remorse. Option (d) cannot be the main idea since exalted status is not the author’s premise; rather, his premise is about turning mental illness into grace by making an effort to heal the effects of sinful actions.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief?

    But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement.

    The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found.

    Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails.

    In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces.

    One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you.

    Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.
      Q.19 
    Which of the following captures the essence of the passage?
    a   Any new visitor to the Clarens area can be awestruck by the mammoth fossils of the terrible lizards called Massospondylus.
    b  The fossils found in South Africa indicate the difference in the time periods of evolution in the field of Paleontology.
    c  Despite one’s initial disbelief, one inevitably falls for the allure of the Massospondylus. This, in turn, proves the supremacy of South Africa in the field of Paleontology.
    d  Any new visitor to the Clarens area must pay his/her homage to the giant Massospondylus. The now extinct species are a fine specimen of the wonders of the natural world.
    Solution:
    It is the most appropriate answer. The other options don’t capture the central idea of this paragraph. The paragraph primarily describes the different time periods with relation to the evolution of dinosaurs.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief?

    But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement.

    The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found.

    Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails.

    In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces.

    One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you.

    Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.
      Q.20 
    In the first paragraph, what is the most likely reason the author states, “Who can blame you for laughing in disbelief”?
    a   To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in the anomalous
    b  To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in aberrations
    c  To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in Paleontology
    d  To demonstrate the innate human tendency to disbelieve in the uncommon
    Solution:
    Anomalous, though used as a synonym for uncommon, has a negative connotation. The author here, most likely, talks about our tendency to disbelieve in things which are not typical. Dinosaur droppings for inspection might not be found everywhere. Options (a), (b), and (c) are wrong.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief?

    But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement.

    The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found.

    Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails.

    In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces.

    One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you.

    Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.
      Q.21 
    This passage is most likely an excerpt from:
    a   the memoirs of an avid traveller
    b  a textbook on Paleontology
    c  a guidebook on South African tourism
    d  the personal column of a newspaper
    Solution:
    The passage is not in the first person narrative form. Hence, it can’t be a memoir. We don’t have adequate data to support option (b). Newspaper columns or textbooks will not be written in the tone used in the passage. Option (c) is the best possible answer.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief?

    But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement.

    The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found.

    Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails.

    In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces.

    One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you.

    Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.
      Q.22 
    Who among the following would be considered by Dr. Groenewald to have “palaeo eyes?”
    a   Sunil, who found his first dinosaur fossil at the age of 12 and is now a renowned Paleontologist
    b  Rajdeep, who can identify the skeleton of any dinosaur belonging to any era accurately
    c  Joan, who can discern among a range of skeletons and identify a dinosaur fossil accurately
    d  Saumya, who has written five books on how to identify features of a dinosaur
    Solution:
    Refer to the last sentence of the passage “Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.” Only Joan shows that ability. Writing a book or practicing a particular profession doesn’t ensure expertise in the practice of a particular skill.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief?

    But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement.

    The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found.

    Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails.

    In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces.

    One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you.

    Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.
      Q.23 
    Which of the following places is the one to visit for early Jurassic-era fossils?
    a   Places where rocks of the Stormberg group are found
    b  The Karoo region where Permian and Triassic remnants are found
    c  Malutis region of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces
    d  The Golden Gate Highlands National park sandstone cliffs
    Solution:
    The fifth paragraph clearly states the location of Jurassic era dinosaur traces, which is the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces, making option (c) correct. The Stormberg rocks are mentioned only in regard to Massospondylus, and the Golden Gate highlands are not associated with any specific period of fossils.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 19 to 24: The passage given below is followed by a set of six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    The first time you visit the Clarens area in the Eastern Free State and someone offers you a brace of South African dinosaur droppings for inspection, who can blame you for laughing in disbelief?

    But later, when they show you a 190-million-year-old fossilized egg of a Massospondylus dinosaur that lived in the Late Triassic and Early Jurassic, a period from about 230-million years ago to about 185-million years ago, your jaw might drop in amazement.

    The Massospondylus wandered about in great herds, migrating back and forth between what would millions of years later become Southern Africa and Russia, when the giant southern super-continent, Gondwana, was still intact. The rocks that were laid down during this period are called the Stormberg Group of rocks, and it is in rocks of the Stormberg Group that the fossils of Massospondylus and other dinosaurs are found.

    Massospondylus dinosaurs hatched from eggs about three times bigger than a hen’s egg, but grew into giant creatures 4 to 5 metres long. They had large bodies, long necks and small heads, and long tails.

    In the Karoo you will find lots of evidence of Permian and Triassic life, but the real early Jurassic-era dinosaur traces are in the Drakensberg foothills and Malutis of the Free State and Eastern Cape provinces.

    One of the most exciting South African dinosaur discoveries in recent years was that of a 210-million-year-old sauropod named Antetonitrus, which came from the very beginning of the dinosaur age and was originally found in the Ladybrand District of the Free State. The dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago. By contrast, the earliest hominid fossils (ancient human ancestors) discovered were between 6-million and 7-million years old. Anatomically modern humans, Homo sapiens, have been around for only between about 200 000 and 100 000 years. The fun of ‘dino hunting’ is all about being up in the sandstone cliffs of places like the Golden Gate Highlands National Park with a good guide who can point out the relevant signs for you.

    Dr. Gideon Groenewald, a local dinosaur expert, says his daughter, Patricia, found her first dinosaur fossil when she was 22 months old. Some people are simply blessed with ‘palaeo eyes’, and can pick out physical features from a seemingly innocuous pile of loose stones.
      Q.24 
    What is the author’s estimate of the time elapsed between the end of the dinosaurs’ dominating period on Earth and the present day?
    a   65 million years
    b  120 million years
    c  185 million years
    d  100,000 to 200,000 years
    Solution:
    The sixth paragraph explicitly states the “dinosaurs held sway on Earth for about 120 million years until the end of the Cretaceous Period, 65 million years ago”. 120 million years is the duration of the dinosaurs’ supremacy. 185 million years is the end of the Early Jurassic era as written in the second paragraph. 100-200,000 years ago is the time that modern humans have existed.
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.25 
    The passage given below is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Key in the number of the option you choose as your answer.

    Self-esteem is a core identity issue, essential to personal validation and to our ability to experience joy. Once achieved, it comes from the inside out. But, it is assaulted or stunted from the outside in. A person with low self-esteem does not feel good about himself because he has absorbed negative messages from the prevalent culture and/or from relationships. Self-esteem is an upward or downward spiral. What you do affects the way you feel. How you feel affects the things you do. The things you do affect what you and others think of you. This, in turn, affects how you feel about yourself. You're either building yourself up or tearing yourself down. There is no status quo when it comes to your self-image.

    (1)The core issue at any given time is the need to validate one's personal growth at any cost.
    (2)Self-esteem needs to be nurtured and tended with care; once established, it helps you to build yourself up in an upward spiral.
    (3)Low self-esteem is detrimental to the extent that growth can get stunted and your personality may be torn down.
    (4)Life is a continuous process of image and esteem-building - positive experiences fuel an upward trend and vice versa with no room for status quo.
    2
    Solution:
    Options (1) and (3) do not follow from the passage. Option (2) only captures the positive aspects of the paragraph. Option (4) best captures the ideas presented in the paragraph. Thus, option (4) is the correct answer.
      Correct Answer : 4

      Q.26 
    The passage given below is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Key in the number of the option you choose as your answer.

    I have gained and achieved a reasonable degree of control over my own life. In times past I have allowed others to anger me by them doing or not doing according to my will, wish, want and desire. Friends, relatives and even strangers, whose cooperation I felt I needed to carry on with my life was denied to me on many occasions. I had fancied myself as a natural leader of men whose purpose in life was to lead and to guide other people on to great or greater things. What a fool I was.

    (1)Uncontrolled emotions lead to the denial of a natural life.
    (2)Self-generated myths result in the pursuit of inconsequential goals and endeavours.
    (3)Self-realization, even at a latent stage, is beneficial in overcoming obstacles.
    (4)Despite many challenges and problems, I have been able to achieve control over my life.
    4
    Solution:
    Options (1), (2) and (3) do not follow from the paragraph and can be rejected. (Option (1) - denial of a natural life, (2) - self-generated myths... inconsequential goals and (3) - latent stage - are not mentioned in the given paragraph). Option (4) best summarises the given paragraph.
      Correct Answer : 4

      Q.27 
    The passage given below is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage. Key in the number of the option you choose as your answer.

    Bred in Delhi, she credits her successful career in music to her school teachers Jenkins Dennis and Manuel. “They were the people who pushed me into singing Western music. It was a big challenge for me as I was the odd one in a family of Carnatic music lovers. I was very shy and reticent. They introduced me to good old pops of the 60s and 70s and I gradually glided into Western music listening to Cliff Richard and Jim Reeves,” she adds.

    1. The singer feels she could never have achieved her potential if her teachers would not have supported her.
    2. A lot of inspiration is required for a person to break out of certain moulds.
    3. The Delhi-born singer attributes her success to her school teachers who inspired her.
    4. Teachers have a significant impact on their student’s lives.
    3
    Solution:
    The paragraph states that the singer holds her teachers responsible for her successful career in music. The paragraph goes on to state how the teachers contributed to the growth of her talent. So, option (3) is the correct answer. Option (1) is incorrect because we cannot infer from the paragraph that the singer could never achieve her potential without her teachers. Options (2) and (4) are negated because we cannot make a general statement on the basis of one example mentioned in the paragraph.
      Correct Answer : 3

      Q.28 
    The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

    1. Also, The Sun described the boy, who lives on a council estate with his single mother in Ballymena, Northern Ireland, and who suffers from learning disabilities and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, as “reclusive”. 
    2. The Daily Mail’s front page referred to him as “a baby-faced loner who rarely leaves his bedroom”.
    3. The portrait of the hacker as an antisocial, lonesome deviant is pervasive and seemingly indelible.
    4. This week, for example, the British tabloids rounded on a child who has been arrested in connection with the hacking of telecommunications provider TalkTalk’s porous servers in order to access customers’ personal data. 
    5. He is, the description continued, an avid player of video games, as if such a detail distinguishes this particular teenager from any other.
    42513
    Solution:
    4 introduces an example of a child who has been accused of being a hacker. 2 talks of a tabloid referring to the child and 1 gives the description of the child. 5 continues the ‘description’ mentioned in 1. The remaining sentence 3 should come before 4 as it is a general statement of which 4 introduces an example. So, the correct answer is 34215.
      Correct Answer : 34215

      Q.29 
    The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

    1. In the 2011 movie Bridesmaids, Kristin Wiig’s character, a pastry chef, comforts herself in a moment of turmoil by baking an elaborate cupcake alone. 
    2. A few reviews of the film have scoffed at this scene, annoyed at the feminine cliché: Women have always been bakers. 
    3. Men fire up the grill and marinate slabs of meat, but historically, baking seems to require two X chromosomes.
    4. When the cupcake is finished she sits down, still looking dejected, and eats it.
    5. We watch her start from scratch and mix the ingredients, scoop the batter into a single paper liner, and then whip up some frosting and ganache to carefully decorate it.
    31542
    Solution:
    1 introduces the character played by Kristin Wiig and she baking a cupcake. 5 talks of her starting from scratch and 4 talks of the finished cupcake. These three sentences describe the scene which is referred to in 2. 2 introduces a feminine cliché which is further described in 3. So, the correct answer is 15423.
      Correct Answer : 15423

      Q.30 
    The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

    1. To me, a psychotherapist not an entrepreneur, this seemed incomprehensible. 
    2. This 30% possibility was one I understood.
    3. Soon after we met I remember him telling me that he began any deal expecting a 5% chance of it succeeding.
    4. This was not fine, he said, but it was better than 5%. 
    5. But when he was offered a drug trial in America, his own odds of survival were 30%.
    31542
    Solution:
    ‘31’ is a mandatory pair as 1 talks of something that is incomprehensible for the author as she is a psychotherapist and not an entrepreneur while 1 describes that something which is not incomprehensible for an entrepreneur. 5 takes the thought forward by introducing a 30% survival rate. 4 and 2 also talk in reference to the drug trial. 4 talks of the entrepreneur’s view regarding the drug trial followed by the psychotherapist’s observation about the drug trial. 4 can come only after 5 and not 2 because of the reference ‘this’ in 4, and hence, ‘542’ is a mandatory sequence. So, the correct answer is 31542.
      Correct Answer : 31542

      Q.31 
    The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.

    1. Barber is the executive chef at the famed Bluehill Restaurant in Manhattan and at Stone Barns in upstate New York, and author of The Third Plate, a book about sustainable cuisine that captures his core belief: instead of just telling people to cut food waste, we should also be using it to make irresistibly tasty dishes.
    2. Continuing the theme, in September, he and Sam Kass, former senior advisor for nutrition policy at the White House and now senior food analyst for NBC News, made headlines when they served ‘waste food’ to world leaders meeting at the United Nations.
    3. In fact, if you’re experiencing anything other than sublime thoughts when you taste his food, he’ll consider it an unsuccessful dish. 
    4. To meet this goal, in March, Barber transformed his restaurant into a pop-up called wastED, where he served ‘fried skate-wing cartilage’, ‘pock-marked potatoes’ and ‘carrot top marmalade’, along with other almost-binned fare. 
    5. Waste is central to Dan Barber’s cooking, and yet, he’d rather you didn’t sense that when you eat it.
    x
    Solution:
    5 introduces Dan Barber’s cooking and the importance of waste in his cooking. 3 takes the thought forward that the chef does not want you to think of waste while eating his food. 1 gives a formal introduction of Barber and talks of his book which focuses on sustainable cuisine. 4 should follow as it talks of ‘this goal’ which is mentioned in 1. 5 should come after 4 as it talks of continuation of the theme which is described in 4, i.e, serving ‘waste food’. So, the correct sequence in 53142.
      Correct Answer : 53142

      Q.32 
    Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in. 

    1. Showcasing a wide variety of street food, Imly is brimming with tangy choices. 
    2. The long dining area has natural light and outside view through the wide glass panes – typical of trains – gives you the feel of sitting in a railcar. 
    3. As a true Delhiite one could not ignore the city’s specialities. 
    4. The luggage racks on the walls add to the atmosphere. 
    5. Vivek explains, “Tamarind is a common denominator in the side dishes served with street food, hence the name.”
    3
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is 2415. All these sentences talk of the restaurant Imly while 3 talks of Delhi’s specialities which is different from the other four sentences.
      Correct Answer : 3

      Q.33 
    Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

    1. Visit this area at night and you’ll see almost no light.
    2. The haunted tag might just no longer be associated with it.
    3. They curve a little more than normal, their branches are spread out far and wide and they almost create a canopy. 
    4. What’s spookier is that the deserted stretch has houses that have been empty for a very long time, despite being located in an area where land prices have hit the roof. 
    5. The first thing you notice about this colony, just off the busy St. Mary’s Road, is the formation of the trees.
    2
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is 5314. 5 begins describing the colony and talks of the formation of trees, which is mentioned in 3. 1 takes forward the comparison of trees to a canopy. Amongst 4 and 2, 4 is a better fit because 1 suggests that the place looks spooky at night and 4 talks of what makes the place spookier. 2 talks of discontinuation of the haunted tag. None of the other options talk of why it might get discontinued. So, the odd one out is 2. Also the description of the place in the rest of the passage is ‘spooky’ and the tag of being haunted might just fit the bill.
      Correct Answer : 2

      Q.34 
    Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

    1. I celebrated my birthday last year by packing my bags and leaving for the twin, holy towns, rather than going through the usual routine of a midnight birthday bash and partying till the alcohol starts pouring out of my ears.
    2. After a short auto rickshaw ride and a post-lunch siesta, my battery was recharged.
    3. Haridwar and Rishikesh are traditionally spiritual getaways, but have enough sights and sounds to excite the agnostic or even the atheistic.
    4. Divinity and devotion, both have been taken to a new commercial high here.
    5. Boarding an early-morning train from Delhi that was headed to Dehradun, I got down at Haridwar by late lunchtime.
    4
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is 3152. 3 introduces the two holy towns and 1 talks of the author’s reason to visit the holy towns. ‘52’ describe the beginning of the journey. 4 is the odd one out as it talks of the commercial aspect of divinity and devotion which is not talked about in any of the other sentences.
      Correct Answer : 4

    Sec 2

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

      Q.35 
    The revenue of how many companies in Virginia was greater than that of Universal?
    a   14
    b  15
    c  16
    d  17
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

      Q.36 
    If the companies given in the table were to be ranked for the state of Virginia i.e. rank 1 for the highest revenue in the state, then which company would hold rank 10?
    a   Gannett
    b  SLM
    c  Owens & Minor
    d  NVR
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

      Q.37 
    If the companies given in the table were to be ranked for each city i.e. rank 1 for the highest revenue in that city, which of the following two companies would hold the same rank?
    a   DynCorp and Markel
    b  Gannett and Genworth Financial
    c  Brink’s and Amerigroup
    d  Dollar Tree Stores and SLM
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Fortune1000 is a list of top thousand companies in America ranked in the descending order of their annual revenues – rank 1 for highest revenue, rank 2 for the second highest revenue and so on. The following table shows all the companies in the state of Virginia (a state in America) that belonged to the Fortune1000-2013 along with their rank, revenues and the city in which they are based.

      Q.38 
    What was the Fortune1000-2013 rank of US Airways Group, a company from some other state in America, with the annual revenue of $ 11, 557 million?
    a   84
    b  216
    c  880
    d  Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows:


    The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices.
    I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share.
    II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day.
    III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February.

    The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.
     
    Following additional information is available:

    A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days.
    B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.
      Q.39 
    Mittal Steel was taken over by the company that offered the maximum offer price as on 6th February.
    Identify the company that was successful in taking over Mittal Steel.
    a   Tata Steel
    b  Modi Steel
    c  Essar Steel
    d  Nippon Steel
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows:


    The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices.
    I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share.
    II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day.
    III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February.

    The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.
     
    Following additional information is available:

    A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days.
    B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.
      Q.40 
    Which group of companies had the same absolute change in the offer price on 6th February with respect to 1st February?
    a   Tata, JK and Nippon Steel
    b  Tata and JK Steel
    c  JK and Nippon Steel
    d  Tata and Nippon Steel
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows:


    The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices.
    I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share.
    II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day.
    III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February.

    The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.
     
    Following additional information is available:

    A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days.
    B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.
      Q.41 
    Had the bidding concluded on 5th February, and companies with the top two offer prices not showed interest in taking over the company, which company could have taken over Mittal Steel?
    a   Modi Steel
    b  JK Steel
    c  There will be a tie between Tata Steel and Essar Steel
    d  Tata Steel
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five companies were vying with each other in their bid to take-over Mittal Steel, the largest steel-maker of the world. The companies initially offered a price per share of Mittal Steel which is termed as ‘offer price’. The offer prices of the respective companies as on 1st February 2007 morning was as follows:


    The bidding process continued for six days from 1st to 6th February. During this period, all the companies followed a simple rule for revising their offer prices.
    I. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) on any day was higher than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised upwards the next day by Rupee 1/- per share.
    II. If the closing price of the share of a particular company on BSE on any day was lower than the previous day’s closing price, the offer price was revised downwards by Rs. 2 per share the next day.
    III. Each day, the offer prices of the companies were revised starting with the first revision on 2nd February and the final revision on 6th February.

    The Table below shows the closing share prices on BSE for the 5 companies mentioned. Data for the closing price of Tata Steel on 3rd February and of Modi Steel on 2nd February are not available.
     
    Following additional information is available:

    A. For Tata Steel, the number of days on which the share price increased was one more than the number of days on which the share price decreased, during the given period. Also, the share price of Tata Steel neither decreaed nor increased on two consecutive days.
    B. The share price of Modi Steel increased on 4 days and decreased on 1 day, during the given period.
      Q.42 
    Only those companies with an offer price of more than Rs. 595 on 4th February were considered for further participation. How many companies were not eligible for making bid on 6th February?
    a   1
    b  2
    c  3
    d  4
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period.


    NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.
      Q.43 
    How many graduates joined UltraTech in the year 2001?
    a   38
    b  56
    c  62
    d  58
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period.


    NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.
      Q.44 
    How many post graduates who did not continue their education to become doctorates, did join UltraTech in 2001 and 2002 put together?
    a   14
    b  13
    c  12
    d  11
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period.


    NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.
      Q.45 
    How many employees joined Ultra Tech in the year 2000?
    a   58
    b  68
    c  78
    d  85
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following pie charts give the number of employees at UltraTech at the end of the year for the period 1999 to 2003. The charts also capture the education qualification of the employees. UltraTech does not employ people who are not atleast matriculates and once a person gets recruited, he cannot pursue further education. It is also known that no employee of the company left the job during the given period.


    NOTE: It is necessary for a doctorate to be a post graduate, for a post graduate to be a graduate and for a graduate to be a matriculate. This means that the number of matriculates also include those who went on to do their graduation, post graduation, doctorates. Similar is the case for the numbers of graduates and post graduates.
      Q.46 
    How many graduates who were not doctorates joined Ultra Tech in 2002?
    a   58
    b  54
    c  62
    d  None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day. 
      Q.47 
    If Police Patrolling jeep No. 2 had received calls from only three Police Patrolling jeeps, then what could be the lowest possible number of Police Patrolling jeeps from which Police Patrolling jeep No. 7 received calls?
    x
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 2

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day. 
      Q.48 
    What could be the maximum possible number of calls that can be made by the Constables?
    x
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 19

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day. 
      Q.49 
    If the total number of calls made by all the Inspectors was not less than the total number of calls made by all the Constables and the total number of calls made by all Constables was not less than the total number of calls made by the all the Drivers, then what was the minimum number of calls that could have been made by the Drivers?
    x
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 4

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    In a city there are ten Police patrolling jeeps for providing security to the residents. Each patrolling jeep has three policemen viz. one Inspector, one Constable and one Driver. Each patrolling jeep has a wireless system to make calls to other patrolling jeeps. Codes are required to activate the wireless system which are different for Inspectors, Constables and Drivers. Four patrolling jeeps receive every call made by an Inspector, two patrolling jeeps receive every call made by a Constable and one patrolling jeep receives every call made by a Driver. The patrolling jeeps can make or receive calls to / from other patrolling jeeps only. The following table provides information about the number of received and dialed calls by each patrolling jeep at the end of a particular day. 
      Q.50 
    If the total number of calls made by all the Inspectors was not less than the total number of calls made by all the Constables and the total number of calls made by all Constables was not less than the total number of calls made by the all the Drivers, then what was the maximum number of calls that could have been made by the Drivers?
    x
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 6

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells  in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

      Q.51 
    How many numbers used for filling the matrix are numerically greater than the number denoted by C?
    5
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 4

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

      Q.52 
    Find the numerical value of (A + I) - (B + H).
    0
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 2

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

      Q.53 
    If we were to construct another 4 × 4 square matrix containing 16 consecutive natural numbers having the same properties as the given matrix, then which of the following could be a possible value of the sum of the numbers in the cells of any row of this matrix?
    a   116
    b  144
    c  168
    d  170
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen consecutive natural numbers are to be filled into a 4 × 4 square matrix shown below, such that there is one number in a cell. Four of these 16 numbers are already shown in the matrix. The remaining 12 numbers are denoted by 12 letters - A through L. The numbers are filled in such a way that the sum of the numbers in the cells in each row, each column and each diagonal of the matrix is the same. It is also known that D + E + I = 66.

      Q.54 
    What is the value of C?
    25
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 26

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below.
    Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh,
    Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena

    A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table.
    B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse.
    C. Rakesh is married to Naina.
    D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav.
    E. Teena sat on her son's right.
    F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

      Q.55 
    Who is sitting between Teena and Henny?
    a   Rahul
    b  Bipin
    c  Pankaj
    d  Rakesh
    Solution:
    The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny.

    Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4).

    Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6).

    By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table:

    1. Rahul Gupta
    2. Henny Bhandari
    3. Rakesh Yadav
    4. Teena Gupta
    5. Pankaj Gupta
    6. Naina Gupta
    7. Bipin Bhandari
    8. Rekha Gupta
    Rakesh is sitting between Teena and Henny.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below.
    Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh,
    Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena

    A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table.
    B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse.
    C. Rakesh is married to Naina.
    D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav.
    E. Teena sat on her son's right.
    F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

      Q.56 
    Who among the following is Rahul Gupta's son?
    a   Bipin
    b  Rakesh
    c  Pankaj
    d  Yadav
    Solution:
    The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny.

    Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4).

    Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6).

    By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table:

    1. Rahul Gupta
    2. Henny Bhandari
    3. Rakesh Yadav
    4. Teena Gupta
    5. Pankaj Gupta
    6. Naina Gupta
    7. Bipin Bhandari
    8. Rekha Gupta
    Pankaj is Rahul Gupta’s son.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below.
    Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh,
    Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena

    A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table.
    B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse.
    C. Rakesh is married to Naina.
    D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav.
    E. Teena sat on her son's right.
    F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

      Q.57 
    Who is sitting opposite Rakesh?
    a   Rekha
    b  Pankaj
    c  Henny
    d  Bipin
    Solution:
    The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny.

    Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4).

    Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6).

    By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table:

    1. Rahul Gupta
    2. Henny Bhandari
    3. Rakesh Yadav
    4. Teena Gupta
    5. Pankaj Gupta
    6. Naina Gupta
    7. Bipin Bhandari
    8. Rekha Gupta
    Bipin is sitting opposite Rakesh.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A dinner was hosted by Mr. and Mrs. Gupta for their son and two daughters along with their spouses. The eight of them sat around a rectangular table, three on each side and one on each end as illustrated in the diagram given below. From the given clues, answer the questions given below.
    Males: Pankaj, Rahul, Bipin, Rakesh,
    Females: Henny, Rekha, Naina, Teena

    A. As the host, Rahul sat at the head of the table.
    B. Henny noticed that each man sat between two women and no one sat next to his or her spouse.
    C. Rakesh is married to Naina.
    D. Bipin sat between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav.
    E. Teena sat on her son's right.
    F. Each of the three people on either side of the table had different surnames. One of the surnames was Bhandari.

      Q.58 
    Who among the following is Rekha's husband?
    a   Rahul
    b  Pankaj
    c  Rakesh
    d  Bipin
    Solution:
    The seating chart would be as shown in the diagram below. From Clue A, it is clear that one couple is Rahul Gupta, the father and Teena Gupta, his wife (clue E). Rakesh and Naina are a second couple (clue C). Since no one sat next to his or her spouse (clue B), Bipin is not married to Rekha implying that he is married to Henny.

    Men and women alternated around the table (clue B), with Rahul Gupta at the head (clue A). Since the three people on each side of the table had different surnames (clue F), Mrs. Gupta and her son did not sit on the same side. By clue E, Teena sat to her son’s right. Thus, Teena’s son sat in position (5) and Teena sat in position (4).

    Bipin then sat on the side opposite Teena, between Rekha and Mrs. Yadav (clue D) in position (7), and his last name is Bhandari (clue F). Then, by clue F, Rekha’s last name is Gupta; her spouse Pankaj is the Gupta son. Since Rekha cannot sit next to her husband at the foot of the table, she sits at Bipin’s left in position (8) and Mrs. Yadav sits at Bipin’s right in position (6).

    By elimination, Rakesh and Naina are the Yadavs. Rakesh Yadav sat opposite Bipin Bhandari (clue B) in position (3) and by elimination, Henny Bhandari sat between Rakesh and Rahul Gupta in position (2). Rahul Gupta, who sat at the head of the table, sat in position (1). In summary, going clockwise around the table:

    1. Rahul Gupta
    2. Henny Bhandari
    3. Rakesh Yadav
    4. Teena Gupta
    5. Pankaj Gupta
    6. Naina Gupta
    7. Bipin Bhandari
    8. Rekha Gupta
    Pankaj is Rekha’s husband.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are:


    These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III.
    . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM).
    . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session.
    . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.
      Q.59 
    In batch I, SM and ITS are taught respectively by
    a   Andy Grove and Kiran Deshpande
    b  Kiran Deshpande and S.G. Pitroda
    c  Andy Grove and S. G. Pitroda
    d  Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are:


    These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III.
    . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM).
    . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session.
    . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.
      Q.60 
    For batch III, IBM and SM are taught respectively by
    a   Narayan Murthy and Andy Grove
    b  Kishor Bayani and Andy Grove
    c  Narayan Murthy and Kiran Deshpande
    d  Kiran Deshpande and Kishor Bayani
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are:


    These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III.
    . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM).
    . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session.
    . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.
      Q.61 
    Kishor Bayani and Narayan Murthy taught which subjects to batch I?
    a   SMkt and LFTD
    b  IBM and LFTD
    c  SMkt and IBM
    d  Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

    A new program was introduced in Yum Bee Yay course of MII, where various CEOs and mentors from the Industry come as a visiting faculty in the 3rd trimester of the course. They are:


    These people have been invited to teach three batches: I, II and III.
    . There are five subjects: Leading Following and Team Dynamics (LFTD); Strategic Management (SM); Information Technology and Systems (ITS); Services Marketing (SMkt); and International Brand Marketing (IBM).
    . There are 5 sessions in a day where all the subjects are taught daily to each batch, one subject in each session.
    . Each visiting faculty comes daily for one session of each batch. They necessarily teach only the subjects they are experts in.
      Q.62 
    Who among the following takes the last two lectures of batch II?
    a   Narayan Murthy and Kishor Bayani
    b  Kishor Bayani and S. G. Pitroda
    c  Kiran Deshpande and Kishor Bayani
    d  Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below:

    (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played.
    (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E.
    (iii) H was in Group X.
    (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F.
    (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J.
    (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I.
    (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match.
    (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively.
    (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.
      Q.63 
    If D and F played the 1st match and the 5th match respectively, then B played against
    a   A
    b  L
    c  O
    d  Either (a), (b) or (c)
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below:

    (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played.
    (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E.
    (iii) H was in Group X.
    (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F.
    (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J.
    (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I.
    (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match.
    (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively.
    (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.
      Q.64 
    If A played against I, then O could have played its match against how many teams?
    4
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 3

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below:

    (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played.
    (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E.
    (iii) H was in Group X.
    (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F.
    (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J.
    (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I.
    (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match.
    (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively.
    (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.
      Q.65 
    If A played against I, then which of the following statements was definitely true?
    a   B played against L
    b  M played its match before P's match
    c  Neither (a) nor (b)
    d  Both (a) and (b)
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Sixteen teams - named A to P in the English alphabet - participated in a football tournament named Diamond Cup. In the first round of the tournament, the teams were divided into two groups - X and Y - with eight teams in each group. In this round, a total of eight matches were played and all the teams played a match each; each team of Group X played against one of the teams of Group Y. Further information about the matches played in the first round is given below:

    (i) The matches were numbered 1 to 8 according to the order in which they were played.
    (ii) A, H and L were in the same group. The same was true for M, J and E.
    (iii) H was in Group X.
    (iv) P was in Group Y and played against F.
    (v) The 6th match was played between M and C; the 8th match was played between H and J.
    (vi) D was not in the group which had C, K and O. G was not in the group which had B, N and I.
    (vii) B played its match before P's match and immediately after I's match.
    (viii) G and K played the 1st match and 2nd match respectively.
    (ix) L did not play the 1st, 3rd, 5th or 7th match.
      Q.66 
    The 8th match was played between
    a   L and M
    b  L and H
    c  H and J
    d  J and A
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Sec 3

      Q.67 
    Let p, q, r and s be distinct real numbers. Max(a,b) = larger number between a and b, and Min(a,b) = smaller number between a and b. If N = Max[Min(p,q), Min(r,s)] and S = Min[Max(p,r), Max(q,s)], which of the following is definitely true?
    a   N ≤ S, for all values of p, q, r and s
    b  N ≥ S, for all values of p, q, r and s
    c  N ≠ S, for all values of p, q, r and s
    d  No specific relation exists between N and S
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.68 
    The digits of a three-digit number in base 11 get reversed when the number is expressed in base 9. Which of the following options gives all such numbers expressed in base 11?
    a   243, 467
    b  302, 604
    c  203, 406
    d  203, 406, 609
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.69 
    In the figure given below, triangle ABC is a right angled triangle, in which ∠B = 90°, AB = 4 cm, BC = 3 cm and DE = EF. If BE is extended to meet AC at G, find the length of AG.
    a   15/7cm
    b  20/7cm
    c  35/14cm
    d  5/2cm
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.70 
    In a group of four boys, each of them has a certain number of Re. 1 coins with him. Every boy has an amount that is an integral multiple of the amount possessed by every other boy who has an amount less than him. If the total amount with the four boys put together is Rs. 70, and no two boys have the same amount, what is the minimum possible amount with the boy who has the maximum number of Rs. 1 coins with him?
    56
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 48

      Q.71 
    Find the remainder when 7777 .... (upto 37 digits) is divided by 19.
    7
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 7

      Q.72 

    8
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 6

      Q.73 
    Shalini and Swati start running from S towards a platform PQ, as shown below. Shalini, who is slower between the two, is given an advantage of running along the line that is perpendicular to PQ, while Swati runs at an angle to that line. The speed (in km/hr) of each of the two is a two-digit natural number. The speed of Shalini is obtained by reversing the digits of the speed of Swati. Each of them takes 1 hr to reach the platform. If the distance between them along the platform, when they just reach to it, is also a two digit integer, find that distance.

    a   33 kms
    b  44 kms
    c  56 kms
    d  65 kms
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.74 
    There are four positive integers a, b, c and d such that a + b + c + d + abcd = m and (abc + bcd + acd + abd) + (ab + bc + bd + ac +ad + cd) = (1154 - m). Find the value of m.
    512
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 502

      Q.75 
    In the figure given below, ABCD is a concave quadrilateral, and ∠BAD = 90°, BA = AD = 6 cm and BC = CD = 5 cm. What is the length (in cm) of the line segment AC?

    a   3 √2
    b  3 √2 - √5
    c  3 √2 - √7
    d  2 √2 - 3
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 76 and 77: Each of the following questions is followed by two statements, I and II. Mark the answer by using the following instructions:

    Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.
    Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
    Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
    Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
      Q.76 

    a  
    b 
    c 
    d 
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 76 and 77: Each of the following questions is followed by two statements, I and II. Mark the answer by using the following instructions:

    Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.
    Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
    Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
    Mark (d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
      Q.77 
    a  
    b 
    c 
    d 
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.78 
    If a = 2x × 3y and b = 2l × 3m, where x, y, l and m are distinct positive integers, what is the probability that a/b is an integer ?
    a   1/2
    b  1/6
    c  1/4
    d  3/4
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.79 
    Seven engineering graduates are working on a certain number of projects, with exactly three engineers working on each project. If no pair of projects has more than one engineer working on both the projects, what is the maximum possible number of projects that are being handled by the seven engineers?
    a   5
    b  6
    c  7
    d  8
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.80 

    a   a > b
    b  b > c
    c  c > a
    d  None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.81 
    For which of the following values of m, does the inequality  where x and y are real numbers greater than zero, definitely hold true?
    a   4.8
    b  6
    c  5
    d  5.9
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.82 
    PQRS is a quadrilateral. If line RS is a tangent to the circle having diameter PQ and line PQ is a tangent to the circle having diameter RS, which of the following is definitely true?
    a   PS is always parallel to RQ.
    b  PS is always equal to RQ.
    c  PQ is always equal to RS.
    d  
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.83 
    On the bank of a river, there are two temples A and B. The river has some magical powers by which it triples the quantity of flowers put into it. Pankaj takes some flowers and puts them into the river. Then he divides them into n equal groups and offers one of the groups at temple A. He puts the remaining flowers into the river again and, again, forms n equal groups and offers one of these groups at temple B. The ratio of the number of flowers offered at temple A and the number of flowers remaining after the offering at temple B is 1 : 12.5. Find the value of n.
    a   5
    b  6
    c  3
    d  9
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.84 

    a   172.8 sq. units
    b  
    c  
    d  Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.85 
    The co-ordinates of three vertices of rectangle ABCD are A (0, -2), B (8, -2) and C (8, 2). P and Q start running, simultaneously, from vertices B and D, respectively towards each other along BD, and meet at E. The ratio of their speeds was ρ. If the coordinates of E are integers, which of the following equations satisfies all the possible values of ρ?
    a   
    b  
    c  
    d  
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.86 
    If all the roots of the equation (x - m)2 (x - 10) + 4 = 0 are integers, find the number of distinct integral values that 'm' can have.
    3
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 3

      Q.87 
    Given f(a) = a2 - 4 (for all real a) is a function in 'a'. For which of the following values of 'a', will the equation f(a - 1)x2 + f(a)x + f(a + 1) = 0 have two real and distinct roots?
    a   -1
    b  -16/5
    c  -4/5
    d  -5/2
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.88 
    N is an integer not equal to 1 such that  If N is a perfect square and x is an integer greater than 1, then what is the minimum possible value of N?
    9
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 9

      Q.89 
    Two sets of equi-spaced parallel lines (having atleast three lines in each set) are drawn such that they intersect each other at right angles, resulting in a square grid of numerous small square shaped cells. If two cells share a common side, then they are called adjacent cells. If, in each of these cells, a natural number is written such that it is the arithmetic mean of the numbers written in all its adjacent cells, then which of the following statements is necessarily true?
    a   At least two of the numbers are distinct.
    b  No two numbers are equal.
    c  All the numbers are equal.
    d  Exactly two of the numbers are equal.
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.90 

    a   
    b  
    c  
    d  
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.91 
    Find the coefficient of x51 in the expansion of the expression :
    (x - 2).[x(x + 4) (x + 8) (x + 12) ... (x + 200)]
    a   5098
    b  5100
    c  5102
    d  5000
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.92 
    On 21 June 2006, the product of Anuj's age (in months) as on his last birthday and his present age (in months) was 2640. Find Anuj's date of birth.
    a   21 November 2001
    b  21 January 2001
    c  21 November 2002
    d  21 January 2002
    Solution:
    The difference between Anuj’s age as on his last birthday and his current age (both in months) is less than 12 months.
    Resolving the product 2640 into factors, it can be observed that (48 × 55) is the only possibility.
    Hence, when Anuj celebrated his last birthday he was 48 months old which was 7 months back.
    Thus, Anuj’s birth date is November 21, 2001.
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.93 
    If x, y and z are positive integers, such that x + y + z = 60 and x2 + y2 = z2, then how many ordered triplets (x, y, z) exist?
    2
      Correct Answer : 2

      Q.94 

    a   1 : 1 : 1
    b  1 : 1 : 2
    c  1 : 2 : 3
    d  None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.95 
    Seven blank spaces are numbered I, II, III, IV, V, VI and VII from left to right. The first seven natural numbers have to be filled in these blank spaces such that they abide by the following rules:
    (i) All the numbers preceding the number placed in blank space IV are either in increasing order or decreasing order, when we move from left to right.
    (ii) All the numbers succeeding the number placed in blank space IV are either in increasing order or decreasing order, when we move from left to right.

    In how many ways this can be done?
    a   460
    b  560
    c  620
    d  700
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.96 
    The equation x4 + ax2 + bx - 15 = 0 has 4 real integral solutions. Which among the following is a possible value of b?
    a   -15
    b  18
    c  -32
    d  None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.97 
    A few newly-wed couples plan to go to Mauritius for their honeymoon. The price of the group package (consisting of a return trip to and fro Mauritius and including 3 days and 3 nights stay at a five star hotel) lies in the range of Rs. 46,200 and Rs. 47,000. However, due to some reason, one couple could not go, due to which each of the remaining couples had to shell out Rs. 3888 extra (because the price of the group package did not change). If the cost of the package was equally shared among the couples, then find the exact price of the package.
    a   Rs. 46,656
    b  Rs. 46,665
    c  Rs. 46,500
    d  Rs. 46,750
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.98 

    In the given figure, AC = BC and AB = 20 cm. If E is the mid point of BC and area of  cm, then find the area of triangle ABD.
    a   60 sq. cm
    b  150 sq. cm
    c  100√2 sq. cm
    d  66.66 sq. cm
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.99 
    A basket containing a certain number of oranges and apples costs Rs. 248. If 1 apple is added to the basket, the average cost per fruit in the basket increases by Rs. 2 and if 1 orange is added to the basket, the average cost per fruit in the basket decreases by Rs. 1. It is also known that if 2 apples are replaced with 2 oranges, the average cost per fruit in the basket becomes Rs. 16. Find the total number of fruits in the basket initially.
    13
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 11

      Q.100 
    'S' is a region enclosing all such points (x, y) in the X-Y plane, whose distance from the origin is less than or equal to 3√2 units. The number of points, in the region 'S', with integer co-ordinates is
    61
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : 61
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