QUESTION BANK : CL MOCK 1502

Solutions of Mock CAT - 02 2015

QA&DI
VA&LR

Sec 2

Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Western colonial expansion began during the 15th century when Spanish and Portuguese explorers conquered "new" lands in the West Indies and the Americas. It continued for over 400 years, and ended with the start of the First World War By that time western powers such as Great Britain, France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, Portugal and Spain, spurred on by their competitive desire to acquire new lands and resources, had colonized the whole of Africa and the areas that we know today as the Americas, Oceania, Australia, New Zealand, the Caribbean, the Middle East, and many parts of Asia.

The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) likewise embarked on an expansionist period that took place during the first half of the 20th century. By mid-century, due to lands gained through an aggressive expansionist policy and through post-World War II treaties, the Soviet Empire gained control of all of Russia and most of Central Asia and Eastern Europe.

During these periods of expansion, Western European and Soviet powers formed new colonial multiethnic provinces (e.g., Rhodesia, French Indonesia, German East Africa) and satellite states (e.g., Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia). They did so with little regard for the people living in the newly controlled areas, or for existing geographic or cultural boundaries. Populations that had previously identified themselves as distinct, based on their cultural, ethnic, and/or religious heritage, were forced to unify under a single national identity. The new multiethnic colonial territories and Soviet states were maintained, upheld, and controlled through the use of violence, and through the implementation of imperialist policies. Certain populations were denied their political, economic, social, and human rights. Imperialist policies promoted ethnic rivalry by favoring one group above the others, distributed resources in an unequal manner, disallowed democratic governments, and prohibited local participation in governmental decisions and actions.

By the 1960s, after years of fighting for independence, most Western colonial territories (e.g., India, Indonesia, Algeria) had gained self-rule. Sovereignty, however, did not bring with it freedom from imperialist influences. Colonial legacies were visible in the desire of the new governments to keep the boundaries that were created during colonial times, in the promotion of ethnic rivalry, in the continuation of inhumane and unjust actions against minority populations, and in the practice of distributing the country's resources in an uneven manner. Also, after being under foreign rule for decades, newly independent governments often lacked governmental institutions, good governance skills, and the governing experience needed to effectively rule their newly sovereign nations. In most cases, the transition from colonial province to independent state was a violent and arduous journey.

Many post-Soviet states (e.g., Azerbaijan, Chechnya, Georgia) experienced similar problems. After the collapse of the Soviet Union in the early 1990s, conflicts involving borders, ethnic rivalry, human-rights violations, and the uneven distribution of resources raged through former Soviet regions (e.g., the Balkans, the Caucasus, and Eastern Europe). In addition, many post-Soviet governments were plagued by a lack of governmental institutions, good governance skills, and governmental experience.

Over a hundred new nations were born during the process of de-colonization. Most of these new nations, however, had not existed at all as nations before colonization, or they had not existed within the post-colonial borders.

Most colonial and Soviet satellite borders were created either through conquest, negotiation between empires, or simply by administrative action, with little or no regard for the social realities of those living in the areas. Nevertheless, many of the leaders and governments of postcolonial and post-Soviet states have fought to keep the territorial boundaries created by past imperialist governments. As a result, a number of boundary conflicts have arisen within post-colonial and post-Soviet territories. Parties to these conflicts justify and legitimate their side's position, using different historical boundaries as evidence for their claims.

Q.51
According to the author, which of the following options would best state the central idea of the passage?

a In the building of geographical empires, it was necessary for the Western powers to focus on building nation states.

b The unification of various geographical areas erroneously took place with populations that were ethnically and culturally distinct from each other.

c The existence of present conflict, and its causes, in post-colonial and post-Soviet territories, can be understood through influential historical factors mainly, the boundaries of erstwhile colonies and territories.

d The creation of multiethnic provinces in the quest for geographical expansion is bound to lead to disastrous consequences in international politics.

Solution:

The passage indicates (refer to the first three paragraphs) that when the Western powers and the Soviet Union undertook colonisation and expansion, they did so without regard for the distinctions within the populations of these colonies and territories. The last line of the third paragraph states that imperialist policies helped promote ethnic rivalry. The fourth paragraph, indicates that despite obtaining freedom, erstwhile colonies were unable to bring in good governance, justice and equality amongst their people. This was the case with the provinces of the erstwhile Soviet Union. The last line of the passage, gives out the central idea stating that various historical boundaries can be used to understand/justify the conflicts that have arisen within post-colonial and post-Soviet territories. Option (c) is the answer. A nation state is defined as "a sovereign state of which most of the citizens or subjects are united also by factors which define a nation, such as language or common descent." Option (a) is incorrect because it does not indicate that Western powers failed to build nation states (an issue that is indicated in the passage). Option (b) provides a partial central idea. It fails to mention that the cause of present conflict in post-colonial and post-Soviet territories can be determined from a historical context. Option (d) indicates the future problems of multiethnic provinces. However, this is not discussed in the passage.

Correct Answer : c

Q.52
Why does the author state that, after gaining independence, most Western colonial territories were still not free from imperial influences?

a These territories experienced an aggressive and difficult transition to newfound sovereignty.

b After being under rule for many years, these territories lacked experience in and support for good governance.

c The territories were used to experiencing inequality and injustice and did nothing to prevent their occurrence even after independence.

d The territories were inexperienced in good governance and continued unjust practices employed by the colonial powers.

Solution:

Refer to the fourth paragraph. There are two main reasons why western colonial territories were still not free from the colonial influence even after independence - 1. These territories continued the unjust practices that had prevailed during colonial times. 2. These territories did not have the experience that was required to run an autonomous government. In effect, they lacked the infrastructure and support for good governance. Option (d) is the correct answer. Option (a) describes the transition from a colonial to an autonomous territory. Option (b) is incorrect because it is a partial answer. It does not take into account the fact that these territories continued with previous colonial practices. Option (c) is incorrect because it is a partial answer. It does not take into account that the territories lacked experience in and support for good governance.

Correct Answer : d

Q.53
According to the passage, one of the inferences that can best be derived from the regular reference to territorial boundaries is

a In the process of colonisation and expansion, the emphasis on regions and land was greater than that on culture and ethnicity.

b Postcolonial and post-Soviet states have attempted to keep off the territorial boundaries created by past imperialist governments.

c Territorial boundaries represented changes in geo-political relations and the need for international diplomacy.

d These boundaries are more or less permanent in the present world and any attempt to tamper with this status quo will lead to disastrous consequences.

Solution:

An assertion in the passage is that territorial boundaries were created by colonial and Soviet regimes without regard for an individual's cultural, ethnic and/or religious affiliation (refer to lines 3-5 in the third paragraph) . The passage also states that even after independence, most colonial territories maintained their boundaries despite the conflicts attached to it (refer to paragraphs 4 and 5). Option (a) can thus be inferred. Option (b) is incorrect as it goes against the information in the passage (refer to lines 3-4 of the last paragraph). The passage indicates that territorial boundaries changed during the period of colonisation and Soviet expansion. But, this does not indicate the need for international diplomacy. Option (c) can thus be ruled out. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage does not concern itself with the future consequences of any changes that are made in the present day.

Correct Answer : a

Q.54
Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that a fallout of the process of de-colonization is all of the following except for

a new nation states that have to link with their previous cultural identity.

b lack of experience in governance for the colonised state.

c violence as an element in the effort to establish new sovereign nations.

d lack of justice and equality in the nation state.

Solution:

Paragraphs 4 and 5 mention the fallout of the process of de-colonisation. Option (a) cannot be inferred from these paragraphs or from the information in the passage. There is no indication that new nation states have to link with their previous cultural identity. In fact, new nation states find it difficult to disassociate themselves from imperialist influences that actually disregarded cultural identities. Option (b) can be inferred from the penultimate sentence of the fourth paragraph. Option (c) can be inferred from the last sentence of the fourth paragraph. Option (d) can be inferred from the third sentence of the fourth paragraph.

Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Hume makes a point that if I do not respond sympathetically to the pain of another person, no amount of reason will move me to care about her plight. But having said this, we are a long way from understanding the passion of virtue. Feeling, emotion (pathos) has as its central meaning something endured or something that happens to one. It is, if not negative or neutral, then reactive to some event or situation. Aristotle remarks relative to this point that one cannot be blamed for feelings only for actions. Even Aristotle, however, has insisted that emotions themselves must become rational in the well tempered soul, which indicates that reason is not an independent faculty, or at least that emotions somehow partake in and are not simply subject to reason. The point here is that even in its philosophical framing passion (pathos) has an active connotation—a positive energy that is not merely reactive. This suggests, for example, that the essential difference between anger and wrath is one of kind, not degree. The wrath of Achilles with which the Iliad begins is anything but passive, and not merely reactive; passion here is not limited to a sense of offense, but marks a positive and generative force only occasioned by that offense. It is this passion that is the source of the judgment ¯Achilles agathos!; passion is the way in which Achilles proclaims himself, the measure of his character. It is here and in this sense that passion and virtue converge. In the milder culture of later times, virtue is more generally recognized, for example, in the passion for justice. Finally, in its most comprehensive and universal sense, the virtue of humanity is realized in the passion for life. Plato famously distrusted and devalued passion, particularly in its characteristic poetic expression, which he nonetheless credited as a kind of divine madness. But in the Symposium Plato dialectically develops the journey of the philosophical spirit toward the beauty of truth, in which Eros, desire, remains at the root of what moves and provides the energy of that spiritual quest. In this context philein sophian—the love and pursuit of wisdom that defines philosophy for Plato—serves to qualify his earlier rejection of passion and existentially anchor wisdom in pathos. It is passion for the beauty in life that leads to the love of wisdom and the truth of understanding—to the eidos of the Good which in turn is the source both of enlightenment and the virtue of a fully human life. So understood, the quadrivium of excellence in the classical world—wisdom, courage, temperance, justice—owe their existence and force in the life of individual and community to pathos (passion), no less than logos(reason.) Whether one aspires to a greatness of soul (the tragic hero) or only to the excellence of a particular spiritual endowment (the range of humanity), movement only begins in the passion of that commitment. Justice in the state or in the soul of the individual is never realized without such commitment. The road to virtue, to the excellence of character in action, whether for the tragic hero or the stoic everyman, must overcome obstacles, excuses, occasions and all the other roadside distractions that imagination can invent. The world of literature is a collected canon of investigations of the lateral movements of human passion, a comprehensive and dynamic manifold of heroic achievement and ironic failures in the human aspiration to virtue. In its positive form, however, passion attests to that most common and ordinary virtue that defines humanity (as opposed to the immortality of the Gods)—a tenacity of spirit and resolve that affirms the beauty of life in the face of inevitable defeat.

Q.55
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an affirmation of virtue.

b However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an affirmation of passion.

c However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an affirmation of reason.

d However tragic the realization of the hero, the anguish of her cry is still an affirmation of the beauty and sublimity of life.

Solution:

The answer to this question can be found in the last lines of the passage. The author states that the passions of human beings that propels them towards striving more and more despite inevitability of failure affirms the beauty of life.

Correct Answer : d

Q.56
Which of the following the author is most likely to agree with?

a Reason is the predictable domain of moral deliberation.

b Reason is the definitive of morals.

c Reason is a slave to the passions.

d Reason has no moral force, and so locates moral life and sense in feelings.

Solution:

This option can be inferred from the first lines of the passage and the perspective of Hume. Also the author states that reason is not an independent entity and emotions are involved in it.

Correct Answer : d

Q.57
Which of the following is true according to the passage?

a The virtue of passion is discovered both in action and reflection.

b The virtue of passion is discovered in the character of the tragic figure that can look into the heart of darkness with complete conviction.

c The virtue of passion is discovered in the character of the ironic figure who struggles against impending doom.

d All of the above.

Solution:

This option is inferred from the last lines of the passage –" manifold of heroic achievement and ironic failures in the human aspiration to virtue. In its positive form, however, passion attests to that most common and ordinary virtue that defines humanity (as opposed to the immortality of the Gods)—a tenacity of spirit and resolve that affirms the beauty of life in the face of inevitable defeat." The author talks about an ironic figure that is fighting against inevitable defeat and in this endeavor the true virtue of passion is realized.

Correct Answer : c

Q.58
Which of the following can be inferred from the last lines of the passage?

a The gods have no need to try and fail, to live and die—indeed they have not the capacity to do so.

b The passions of the timeless gods are pale by comparison to those of a creature caught in the ravages of time, in which passion is all that sustains him.

c The gods are without virtue, not because they lack restraint, but because only human beings must risk and suffer and fail in aspiring to become what they can only imagine.

d Gods lack passion and are hence without virtue.

Solution:

The author talks of passion as humans fighting in the face of inevitable defeat. This virtue of passion is not realized in Gods as they are immortals and do not suffer this irony.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Until the mid 1980s, success in the fashion industry was based on low cost mass production of standardized styles that did not change frequently due to the design restrictions of the factories, such as Levi's 501 jeans and a man's white shirt, although there were exceptional cases of rapid changing haute couture. Apparently, consumers during that time were less sensitive toward style and fashion, and preferred basic apparel. There was a sudden increase in the import of fashion-oriented apparel for women as compared to the standardized apparel.

This reduced the demand for classic though simple apparel as consumers started becoming more fashion-conscious. For instance, the women's legwear industry introduced colours and textures to basic hosiery to coordinate with every outfit. Unfortunately, this change in fashion oriented apparel contributed to an increase in mark-downs in the market, which became necessary due to the failure to sell fashion apparel during the forecasted season.

As fashion is considered to be a temporary cyclical phenomena adopted by consumers for a particular time, it becomes evident that the life cycle for fashion is quite small. Since the 1980s, a typical life cycle for fashion apparel had four stages: introduction and adoption by fashion leaders; growth and increase in public appearance; mass conformity (maturation); and finally, the decline and obsolescence of fashion. Also, the fashion calendar during this time was primarily based on the fabric exhibitions, fashion shows and trade fairs, that consisted of the basic pattern of Spring/Summer and Autumn/Winter ranges which typically resulted in developing a seasonal range in one full year. However, towards the beginning of the 1990s, retailers started focusing on expanding their product range with updated products and faster responsiveness to the 'newness' of the fashion trends; and providing 'refreshing' products instead of only cost efficiencies for manufacturing. In order to increase the variety of fashion apparel in the market, the concept of adding more phases to the existing seasons (that is, the period of time during which fashion products are sold) in a fashion calendar came into existence. The addition of 3 to 5 mid-seasons forced immense pressure on suppliers to deliver fashion apparel in smaller batches with reduced lead time. For instance, Liz Claiborne developed six seasons instead of just two.

These changes to the number of mid-seasons arose partly from the changes in consumers' lifestyles and partly from the need to satisfy consumers' demand for fashion clothing for specific occasions.

Towards the late 1980s, the fashion apparel industry was dominated by several larger retailers which increased the competition levels in the market. In order to survive the competition, other fashion apparel retailers switched from product-driven to buyer-driven chains, developed alliances with suppliers in different markets, and promoted their distinctive brands. This resulted in an increase of profits from unique combinations of research, design, sales and marketing that would allow them and the manufacturers to act strategically by linking with overseas factories. The fashion apparel industry developed an infrastructure around the late 1980s with an emphasis on promoting responsiveness (quick response) through reduced lead times, alongwith maintaining low costs.

Q.59
Which of the following options best states the central theme of the passage?

a An attempt to explore the changes in the fashion apparel industry in the past two decades.

b An attempt to understand how fast fashion emerged to the extent that it is at today.

c Examine the changes in the fashion apparel industry leading to the evolution of 'throwaway or fast fashion'.

d An attempt to align the research capabilities with market growth potential for fast fashion.

Solution:

The passage starts by analysing the standards for success in the fashion industry in the 1980s. It moves on to discuss the changes that took place in this decade. The author also discusses the lifecycle for fashion apparel since the 1980s. The trends of the 1990s find mention in the third paragraph. The move of the apparel industry towards quick responsiveness and fast fashion is discussed in the last two paragraphs. Option (c) includes both main points of discussion of the passage and is hence the answer. Option (a) is incorrect because it concentrates on a partial aspect of the discussion i.e. the changes in the apparel industry in the past two decades. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage doesn't only look at fast fashion and its emergence. Option (d) is incorrect because it is beyond the scope of the passage.

Correct Answer : c

Q.60
Which of the following options would help support the point made in the second paragraph?

a Mass production of fashion products was not a solution to gain profits in the fashion business.

b Mark-downs were a necessary part of the fashion business that saw increasingly fashion-conscious consumers.

c Last season's fashion could not be passed off to fashion conscious consumers in the current season.

d The fashion industry had to widen its scope of apparel to include more colours and textures for discerning tastes.

Solution:

The second paragraph discusses the changes that took place as consumers became more fashion conscious. The first sentence states the main point of the paragraph indicating that as consumers became more fashion conscious, they also moved away from standardised apparel. The example of the legwear industry also proves that when a specific/niche product was introduced it led to the difficulty in selling fashion apparel that conformed to the mass market. Option (a) is thus the answer. Option (b) is incorrect because it does not explain the point made in the second paragraph and wrongly indicates that mark-downs were used for all apparel. Option (c) is incorrect because it is related to last season's fashion, whereas the paragraph deals with trends that were present. Option (d) is incorrect because it refers to a widening of the scope of the fashion industry but fails to mention the downward trend of the mass market.

Correct Answer : a

Q.61
Which of the following options would fit into the second stage of the fashion life cycle?

a The recurring appearance of the season's hot shade on the red carpet due to a particular fashionista.

b The appearance of the season's hot shade in various lifestyle stores across the country.

c The appearance of large stocks of this season's jacket in the sale sections of various lifestyle stores.

d The appearance of the latest men's jacket style on the red carpet and subsequently in various celebrity events.

Solution:

The third paragraph mentions the four stages of the fashion life cycle. The second stage is mentioned as 'growth and increase in public appearance.' Option (a) is incorrect because it belongs to the first stage of the life cycle - introduction and adoption by fashion leaders. Option (b) belongs to the third stage - mass conformity (maturation). Option (c) belongs to the fourth stage - decline and obsolescence of fashion. Option (d) is the answer as it indicates the increase in public appearance of the fashion product.

Correct Answer : d

Q.62
It can be inferred that the switch from product-driven to buyer-driven chains would have been advantageous to fashion apparel retailers because

a they helped in driving marketing and capital investment to increase competitiveness in the industry.

b it brought the retailers closer to the demands of the end-consumer and led to quick responsiveness.

c it ensured that many retailers extended the number of 'seasons' or the frequency with which the entire merchandise within a store is changed.

d it modified structural characteristics in the supply chain and forced retailers to bring in low cost, flexibility in design, delivery and speed to market.

Solution:

The last paragraph mentions that, in order to survive competition, fashion apparel retailers were forced to switch from product-driven to buyer-driven chains as one of many steps taken. This resulted in increased profit and helped the retailers develop quick response to the market. It is thus indicated that the survival measure to buyer-driven chains led to responsiveness and was derived from a closer relationship between retailers and buyers. Option (b) is thus the answer. Option (a) is incorrect because it cannot be linked with a buyer-driven perspective. Option (c) is incorrect because it fails to mention if this option was a measure adopted keeping in mind the consumer's choice. Option (d) mentions low cost and changes in the supply chain, again without stating if these were advantageous to the consumer or required by this group.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Institutionalization is an integral aspect of the Gramscian notion of hegemony because institutions (whether political-military, or socio-economic) provide the systemic legitimacy for dealing with conflicts either coercively or through peaceful means. The underlying structure of interstate relations intrinsically involves an enforcement potential under the control of the powerful nations. The consequence is two distinct forms of Great Power-weak state relations: coercive and consensual. In the latter sense, it is the condition whereby strong states exercise leadership over weak states by gaining their perennial consent. To a large extent the use of force is obviated to the point that the developing state submits to the prevailing power relations. Continuous submission is enhanced by the fact that the dominant states are willing to make concessions, implement policy adjustments, that from time to time help to alleviate the politico-economic burdens of the weak states. Institutions provide the legitimacy of power relations, articulate the hegemonic mission of the powerful, and appeal for the cooperation of the weak. For example, images of proper global economic relations have been institutionalized and universalized by institutions like the IMF, General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), World Trade Organization (WTO), and the World Bank, among others. Similarly, institutional provision for dealing with intractable and extensive conflict situations is located within the jurisdiction of the United Nations Security Council, and more recently within regional security organizations like NATO and the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS). Developments are underway to make regional organizations like the Organization of African Unity (OAU), the Organization of American States (OAS), and so on, more responsive to peacekeeping interventions. Thus hegemony which comprises of both coercive and consensual relations help to cement and legitimize, and internationalize the dominant moral and cultural values, and disseminate the worldview of the dominant states. The hegemonic functions of the Great Powers, with the "consent" of the weak states create functional unity in a system of diversity.

To a large extent, then, subordinate states either give "unwilling consent" or "voluntary consent" to the social logic imposed on specific issues by the strong states. Accordingly, social forces that commence within the powerful states soon spillover into weak states, and the policy implications or adaptive mechanisms that accompany them imposed upon or integrated into the political economy of these weak states. The socio-political developments produced by the dynamics of the economic system in turn generate institutions and policy changes that determine world orders. Stated differently, economic crises and political transformations generate new policy imperatives and/or social forces, which in turn bring about changes in the structure of states and their relationship with civil society. For example, the transnational social forces unleashed by both the Cold War competition and post-Cold War era influence state structures, in both the core and periphery. In other words, changes in systemic polarity spawn forces that influence state structures, underscoring the fact that state structures are largely a reflection of a particular structure of world order and forces in existence.

A world hegemony in this sense is thus the expansive effects of the individual and collective social forces of the dominant advanced industrial states. The IFIs, the culture, the technology, and other entities associated with this collective hegemony constitute guidelines for development models in developing states. The dominant effects of such a collective hegemonic system also becomes a demonstration effect which could have a profound effect on the lives of groups in poor countries.

Q.63
Which of the following options, if true, would best exemplify the reference to the Great Power-weak state relations?

a Country X offers trade subsidies to Country Y while expecting support in issues related to foreign policy.

b Country X provides experts to help Country Y take autonomous decisions on the conflict/peacekeeping initiatives that it must employ with its neighbours.

c Country X and Country Y are part of a regional group that meets to discuss issues and policy with specific reference to the geographical region they are a part of.

d Country X helps country Y in exchange for military intelligence and technology.

Solution:

The first paragraph discusses the elements of the Great Power-weak state relationship - coercive and consensual. Lines 5-14 of the first paragraph spell out the aspects of this relationship. Option (A) is a form of consensual relationship that can be inferred from lines 7-8 'strong states exercise leadership over weak states' and lines 10-12 'dominant states are willing to make concessions (trade subsidies)'. Option (b) is incorrect because it is not a form of coercive or consensual form of power because there is a lack of autonomy for the weak state in either form. Option (c) is not a form of the Great Power-weak state relation because there is no element of control that can be determined from this relation. Option (d) is a form of mutual dependence and not Strong-Weak relationship. In this situation, both parties seem to be on an equal platform.

Correct Answer : a

Q.64
It can be inferred that the purpose of institutions like the IMF is to

a To bring in a form of harmony in a world that has diverse needs and goals.

b To ensure that conflict/peacekeeping interventions and economic dislocation/external economic policy do not impose on the overall sovereignty of any nation.

c To cement and legitimise the relationships between the Great Powers and Weak States.

d To provide a systemic authenticity to and to universalise the relationship between dominant and weak states.

Solution:

The second half of the first paragraph provides information on the role that institutions like the IMF play in world politics. They ensure that global economic relations have been institutionalized and universalized. They provide institutional provision for dealing with intractable and extensive conflict situations. The penultimate sentence further adds that these institutions cement and legitimise the world view of dominant states. The first sentence of the paragraph also states that institutions provide the systemic legitimacy (authenticity) required to deal with conflicts either coercively or peacefully. Option (d) is thus the answer. Option (a) is incorrect because it does not make a reference to a hegemonic world order. Option (B) does not discuss the relationship between the dominant and weak states. Option (c) is incorrect because the last part of the paragraph states that these institutions help to cement and legitimise the world view of dominant states and not the relationship between the dominant and weak states.

Correct Answer : d

Q.65
What does the author mean when he states, in the last sentence of the second paragraph, '...underscoring the fact that state structures...forces in existence'?

a State structures are influenced by both core and peripheral transnational social forces.

b The composition and function of state structures is influenced by the social forces of dominant states.

c The underlying global structure in which states and groups engage with the broader world system can be understood through a specific structural analysis.

d States, in particular, developing states, are progressively losing their individual identities, rights, and obligations vis-à-vis civil society.

Solution:

Refer to the last sentence of the second paragraph which concludes the discussion in the paragraph. The second sentence indicates that social forces of powerful states eventually influence the forces in weak states. They also influence the structure of states in general. The last sentence concludes that changes in the world bring about a change in the state structure. However, the change that is brought about is indicated to be influenced by the dominant states itself. Hence, option (b) is the answer. Option (a) is incorrect because the paragraph states that social forces influence state structures in both the core (the dominant state) and the periphery (the weak state). The passage does not refer to core and peripheral transnational forces. Option (c) refers to the need for a structural analysis. However, this need has not been discussed in the passage. Option (d) can be broadly inferred from the passage. However, it cannot be inferred from the last sentence of the second paragraph.

Correct Answer : b

Q.66
Given the information in the passage, which of the following statements must be true?

a A developed state's sovereignty can't be assailed by various transnational globalization processes.

b Hegemony is more intense and consistent at the core and more laden with contradictions at the periphery.

c Peacekeeping is a hegemonic function, especially in the substantive shift from traditional intervention to a new variation.

d The economic and social institutions, the culture, the technology associated with national hegemony become patterns for emulation abroad.

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect because there isn't enough information to infer that a developed state's sovereignty can't be assailed. Even though the passage indicates that it is the social forces in a dominant nation that influence forces in a weak nation, once can't infer that a developed state cannot be influenced by another or that its sovereignty can't be threatened. Option (b) can't be inferred because the intensity of hegemony in various state structures has not been discussed in the passage. The first paragraph indicates that peacekeeping is a hegemonic function. It even states that it is institutionalised and within the jurisdiction of the United Nations Security Council. Option (c) can thus be inferred. Option (d) is incorrect because it does not specify that this is true for dominant states or for the Great Power states.

Correct Answer : c

Q.67
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a They take the time that they take. If you are late for a meeting, you can hurry. If the roast potatoes are slow to burn, you can turn up the oven.

b But, if you are impatient with the mayonnaise and add the oil too quickly, it curdles. If you start tugging with frustration on a tangled fishing line, the knot just becomes tighter.

c "Give a man a fish and you feed him for a day; teach a man to fish and you feed him for a lifetime," perfectly sums up the importance of education as an activity that cannot be randomly accelerated on its own.

d There is an old Polish saying, "Sleep faster; we need the pillows," which reminds us that there are some activities which just will not be rushed.

Solution:

The correct sequence is dab. "They" mentioned in option (a) refers to "activities" mentioned in option (d). This makes these two choices a mandatory pair. Option (b) talks about activities and processes that cannot – should not - be hurried. Option (c) quotes a famous saying but distorts the interpretation and relation with education beyond rational reasoning. In other words, it's an absurd choice. It does not fit into the sequence.

Correct Answer : c

Q.68
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a If you truly want to be a person of influence you first have to embrace evolution; wisdom will always let you know that fighting change is definitely a losing battle so it is imperative that you move towards being a more evolved enlightened human being.

b One of the great principle of life is stated this way; "Freedom and happiness are found in the flexibility and ease with which we move through change."

c If you truly want to transition or transform from someone who moves through life unconsciously to a person who becomes the wealthy individual who's completely aware of and completely at ease with all things around him or her then you must embrace change.

d You will reap only what you have sowed; Que sera, sera - 'whatever will be, will be.'

Solution:

The correct sequence is bac. Option (b) is a general statement of wisdom from which the other two statements follow in a logical sequence. Option (a) demonstrates that evolution and change are inevitable and the wise man does not fight change as he knows it's a losing battle and embraces change in his quest for enlightenment; option (c) takes this idea further: enlightenment is followed by wealth, for the individual has grown and evolved and is perfectly comfortable with the (new) environment and circumstances he finds himself - he has adopted the "go with the flow" philosophy; option (d) is a generic statement of wisdom worth remembering, but has no co-relation with the other options.

Correct Answer : d

Q.69
Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a Thus it happens that the agitator stands quite alone in the midst of the multitude surrounding him.

b That is the tragedy of the person prominent in the public eye.

c The path of the propagandist of social justice is strewn with thorns.

d The representative of a revolutionizing idea stands between two fires: on the one hand, the persecution of the existing powers which hold him responsible for all acts resulting from social conditions; and, on the other, the lack of understanding on the part of his own followers who often judge all his activity from a narrow standpoint.

Solution:

The correct sequence is cda. Option (c) talks about the crusader who has to fight for social change, which is never easy and he has to overcome many obstacles in the process; option (d) explains his unenviable position: not only will he have to face the persecution of the existing powers, but also the myopic (narrow) perspective of (some of) his own followers who don't understand him or his vision – thus he is caught between these two conflicting forces; option (a) states the consequence of his own followers' lack of understanding – the social activist finds himself isolated and alone even though he is moving among the multitude. Option (b) is a rather generic statement that can refer to any person who is famous for any number of reasons, not necessarily because (s)he is a crusader for social change.

Correct Answer : b

Q.70
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a That being the ideal of Anarchism, its economic arrangements must consist of voluntary productive and distributive associations, gradually developing into free communism, as the best means of producing with the least waste of human energy.

b Anarchism cannot but repudiate the perverse method of production called centralization; its goal is the freest possible expression of all the latent powers of the individual to make him into a whole, self-integrated human being.

c A perfect personality is only possible in a state of society where man is free to choose the mode of work, the conditions of work, and the freedom to work - one to whom the making of a table, the building of a house, or the tilling of the soil, is what the painting is to the artist and the discovery to the scientist,—the result of inspiration, of intense longing, and deep interest in work as a creative force.

d As the French philosopher Voltaire said: Work banishes those three great evils: boredom, vice and poverty.

Solution:

The correct sequence is bca. Option (b) introduces Anarchism and how it supports the existence of a whole, self-integrated human being who is able to utilize all of one's latent powers. Option (c) talks of the situation in which a perfect personality can exist. In the context of the passage, a whole human being can be considered to be a perfect personality. There is reference to the freedom an individual needs regarding the mode of work and conditions. This is continued in option (a) which mentions the economic arrangements required for 'voluntary' productive means. So, option (d) is the odd one out.

Correct Answer : d

Q.71
Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

A. The company is also entering new categories like real estate and automobiles.
B. Snapdeal began as an online group discounting site in 2010.
C. Indian e-commerce firm Snapdeal recently got a major boost: a $627 million investment from SoftBank, the Japanese telecom and media giant.
D. This is the largest investment so far in the Indian e-commerce space.
E. In 2012, it transformed itself into a marketplace almost overnight, and today has more than 50,000 merchants, five million products and 30 million users.

a BEACD

b CDBEA

c BECDA

d BACDE

Solution:

CD is clearly a mandatory pair. Usage of , 'this is the largest investment' refers to the investment we spoke about in C .BE again form a mandatory pair in the chronological order where we are discussing the companies transformation over a period of time. Moreover, C is the introductory sentence and A is the closing sentence.

Correct Answer : b

Q.72
Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

A. Also, there is a systemic shift over the course of people's lives.
B. Instead, there is predictable regularity in how people experience happiness, as well as in the experiences that elicit happiness.
C. When people are younger, happiness is more about feeling excited, and as people get older, happiness is more about feeling calm.
D. It's also not purely idiosyncratic and something different to everyone.
E. Happiness is not a singular thing that people are pursuing and will someday find.

a EDBAC

b DBACE

c EACDB

d ACEDB

Solution:

ED is the mandatory pair where we are questioning what happiness is actually. After ED, B extends the idea of happiness further that it depend on individual experiences. Then , AC follow elaborating further that how it changes with passage of time.

Correct Answer : a

Q.73
Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

A. But what was particularly striking about the findings was the disconnect between what employees and managers perceived: Inadequate staffing was cited by 53% of workers as the major reason for stress, while only 15% of senior managers thought this was so.
B. Stress has a demonstratively uneasy relationship with productivity.
C. Stressed employees took twice as many sick days as non-stressed ones.
D. Towers Watson's 2014 global survey showed employee disengagement going up with stress.
E. Of those employees claiming high stress levels, 57% said they were disengaged; In contrast, just 10% with low stress levels said they were disengaged.

a ECABD

b CABDE

c BCEDA

d BDECA

Solution:

B is clearly the introductory sentence that states relationship of stress and productivity which is the thematic highlight of the passage. DEC form a mandatory sequence in terms of statistics that substantiate the claim made earlier in the introductory sentence. A clearly will come in the end as it uses 'the findings' which refers to the statistics mentioned earlier.

Correct Answer : d

Q.74
Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

A. Where negotiations are concerned, Rubin sees this quality as an advantage for men.
B. Since "when the file drawer closes, [the interaction is] done, and they can go out and have a drink and be best friends afterward."
C. By comparison, men's brains "work like file cabinets. They're dealing with one topic at a time, and nothing touches anything else."
D. Many of the panelists said they felt that women and men do negotiate differently, identifying cultural and even biological distinctions.
E. Citing the book Cracking the Boy's Club Code: The Woman's Guide to Being Heard and Valued in the Workplace, Deborah Rubin, a senior vice president of pension sales and distribution at Transamerica, said that in a woman's brain, "everything's connecting all the time; that's why we can multitask."

a DECAB

b CABDE

c DEABC

d DABCE

Solution:

DE forms a mandatory pair where we are discussing how negotiations skills are different in men and women which is the theme of the paragraph. EC again is a mandatory pair where there is direct contrast between men and women. A must follow C as A says 'this quality is an advantage for men'. B ends the sequence where it states how men exploit this advantage.

Correct Answer : a

Q.75
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. One of the problems of the debate is that there is no internationally agreed definition on what constitutes a lethal autonomous weapons system.
B. Among those giving evidence to the UN meeting this week will be Dr William Boothby,
C. a retired RAF air commodore and lawyer who used to run the unit responsible for ensuring
D. that newly acquired weapons conform to the UK's international humanitarian law obligations.

a A only

b B and D

c D and C

d A and C

Solution:

The wrong preposition has been used with "definition" in Statement A. The correct usage is "definition of". The preposition "on" indicates position, and it is clear from the context of the paragraph that it's not talking about position.

Correct Answer : a

Q.76
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. Chua also wrote his early life and career, about losing his job at a hospital in his native country, the Philippines,
B. and his rows of fellow Filipinos in the UK.
C. He wrote that he tried unsuccessfully to sue a previous employer in the UK
D. and made a complaint to medical watchdogs over the treatment he had received from a GP.

a A only

b A and B

c A and C

d B and D

Solution:

In Statement A "wrote" should be accompanied by the preposition "about" to make the sentence "Chua also wrote about his life…". In Statement B, verb "rows" is followed by the wrong preposition "of" which should be replaced with "with". The sentence is talking about quarrels and not about straight lines. "Rows of" implies the latter meaning, while "rows with" is the correct usage for the former.

Correct Answer : b

Q.77
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. Tokyo hoped that its revised plan, of involving the killing of fewer whales,
B. would pave the way for the resumption of the Antarctic hunts, possibly by the end of this year.
C. Its whaling fleet recently returned from the Southern Ocean,
D. although it has not planned to kill any whales, in accordance with the ICJ ruling.

a A only

b A and B

c A and D

d B, C and D

Solution:

In Statement A, "of" is redundant and should be omitted, so that sentence becomes "…its revised plan, involving the killing of fewer whales, would pave the way for…". Statement D should be in past tense as it is saying something about a whaling fleet that has already returned. However, it uses "has" instead of "had" and therefore is an incorrect statement.

Correct Answer : c

Q.78
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

All human rights are indivisible, whether they are civil and political rights, such as the right to life, equality before the law and freedom of expression; economic, social and cultural rights, such as the rights to work, social security and education, or collective rights, such as the rights to development and self-determination, are indivisible, interrelated and interdependent. The improvement of one right facilitates advancement of the others. Likewise, the deprivation of one right adversely affects the others.

a Deprivation of one person's rights adversely affects rights of another person.

b Human rights are a combination of economic, social and cultural rights.

c Human rights are interdependent and interrelated.

d Improvement of one right facilitates advancement of others.

Solution:

The passage talks of right being related to each other and being interdependent. So, option (c) is the correct answer. Option (a) is out of scope of the passage while options (b) and (d) are too narrow in scope.

Correct Answer : c

Q.79
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

One afternoon in April 2002, I was in his office when the news came of a young Kashmiri girl being raped in a small village in the southern mountains of Kashmir by Indian paramilitary soldiers. A tense silence followed. I wanted to leave immediately for that village; it was an hour from my ancestral village in South Kashmir. I could take a cab and get there and write the story. My friend smoked another cigarette and sighed. His memories of reporting similar cases filled the room. 'Justice is rare here. Hardly any soldier gets tried and punished in a court of law for such crimes,' he said. He had a wide range of contacts in the local civil service and police and by the evening he had enough details to file a report about the incident for his newspaper. Only later, I understood his reluctance to travel to her village. It was painful even in ones detached role as a journalist; my friend had been to innumerable sites of atrocities.

a Even journalists, in their objective role of reporting, find facing atrocities disconcerting.

b It's hard to get justice in areas of conflict such as Kashmir, where crimes committed by armed forces go unpunished.

c Rapes and killings of innocents by armed forces are common in areas like Kashmir.

d The author's friend has witnessed numerous incidents of atrocities as a journalist.

Solution:

The passage talks of reporters who have the responsibility of objectively reporting the news around the world, including the atrocities faced by other. These reporters, even though objective, are reluctant to face these atrocities themselves. Option (a) correctly identifies the main point that the passage tries to make. The other options are too narrow in scope as compared to option (a).

Correct Answer : a

Q.80
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.

Each year, the world loses eight to nine million children less than five years of age; India accounts for a disproportionate one-fifth of these deaths. Diarrhoea and pneumonia are the leading causes of death in the country, together accounting for nearly one-third of all child deaths. Pneumonia is responsible for more than 300,000 deaths among children less than five years of age. Equally astounding is the fact that more than 120,000 Indian children in the same age group die from diarrhoea related causes each year. The country with the second greatest burden is Nigeria, which has less than 50,000 deaths per year. China, with a population larger than India's, loses only 27,000 children to diarrhoea.

a Efforts to address child health take on a new sense of urgency looking at the striking health statistics.

b India has to overcome the challenges of child deaths caused by curable diseases like pneumonia and diarrhoea.

c Nigeria is second only to India in the number of child deaths that occur each year worldwide.

d Out of about nine-million child deaths worldwide, India accounts for one-fifth deaths, major causes of which are pneumonia and diarrhoea.

Solution:

The first line of the passage is the main point discussed in the passage. The rest of the passage just explains the figures mentioned in the first line. So, option (d) completely summarizes the idea of the passage. Options (a) and (b) are solutions to a problem and are out of the scope of the passage, while option (c) is too narrow in scope as it only talks of India's position in the context of Nigeria.

Correct Answer : d

Q.81
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

The challenge for the UN and the international community is to understand the complex reasons behind self-immolations and to address them by taking concrete political steps. Any failure to do so casts a permanent shadow on Tibet's half-century long non-violent struggle for freedom. Today, Tibet is the litmus test in a world where everyone condemns violence and aspires to achieve lasting peace by solving global conflicts through dialogue. The lack of courage shown by world leaders in facing up to China and the UN's insomniac silence could spiral the future of the Tibetan struggle into directions that no one wants it to take. Worse still, these evasive attitudes send a dispiriting signal to other people fighting for freedom that non-violence is not a tenable path.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument presented above?

a UN has taken measures to prevent any violent struggle in Tibet.

b Tibetan non-violent protestors are, reportedly, giving up on their cause.

c Unrest among the people of Tibet, caused by a lack of international support, has made a group of protestors consider taking up arms against the oppression.

d China has proposed a peaceful resolution to the conflict.

Solution:

The passage talks about the urgency of international intervention to support the Tibetan non-violent struggle, and how the lack of such an intervention might change the direction of the Tibetan struggle to an undesirable one. Option (c) is the correct answer because it depicts a similar scenario, and therefore most strengthens the argument. All the other options deviate from this scenario.

Correct Answer : c

Q.82
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Determined to help more Indians follow in his path, he's laid out an ambitious vision to reduce extreme poverty, improve education, empower women and girls and unleash India's true economic potential while confronting climate change. Like India, he transcends the ancient and the modern—a devotee of yoga who connects with Indian citizens on Twitter and imagines a "digital India".

Which of the following can best be inferred from the passage?

a India has become one of the fastest-developing countries in the world today.

b He is an important political figure in India, with a lot of influence on shaping policies of national and international interest.

c By being a devotee of yoga and using Twitter to connect with Indian citizens, he represents an India that's becoming modern without losing touch with its ancient culture.

d New policies have been introduced to reduce extreme poverty, improve education, empower women and girls and unleash India's true economic potential.

Solution:

Refer to the line "Like India, he transcends the ancient and the modern—a devotee of yoga who connects with Indian citizens on Twitter and imagines a "digital India"." This line suggests that he was in touch with the ancient as well as the modern sides of India. Option (a) is irrelevant. Options (b) and (c) are negated as they talk of policies while the passage only talks of a vision.

Correct Answer : c

Q.83
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Since then Medinsky has waded into a row over the staging of Wagner's opera, Tannhauser, in the Siberian city of Novosibirsk - sacking the manager of the opera house after Orthodox clerics objected to scantily-clad Biblical characters. The production was "humiliating" to believers, the clerics said - the same argument used to jail members of Pussy Riot after their punk performance in a Moscow cathedral.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from this argument?

a Musicians performing punk music in cathedrals in Moscow are jailed.

b Punk performances are humiliating to believers, according to clerics.

c The manager of an opera house in Novosibirsk was sacked for staging Wagner's opera, Tannhauser.

d Orthodox clerics would be offended by scantily-clad Biblical characters in any performance.

Solution:

Option (a) is incorrect because the passage only talks of a particular performance; we cannot generalize the situation to all musicians who perform punk music in cathedrals in Moscow. Option (b) is negated because even though the punk performance was labelled 'humiliating', we cannot infer that the clerics did so. Moreover, we cannot say that punk performances in general are humiliating to believers as the passage talks of a certain incident. Option (c) is correct because the sacking of the manager is the direct fallout of the controversial staging og Tannhauser.Option (d) is the incorrect answer because we cannot definitely infer that clerics would find scantily-clad Biblical characters offensive and humiliating in other performances.

Correct Answer : c

Q.84
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

The central concern of the unbylined essay was the rise of the Organization Man, an idea that was at that point about a decade old. So-called after a 1956 book of that name, the Organization Man was — for better or worse — the American businessman devoted to his company and striving only for the comfortable conformity of post-war suburban life. The opposition of the Organization Man was the capital-I Individual, of which Lincoln was held up as a shining example.

Which of the following can best be inferred from this passage?

a The capital-I Individual was written as a direct opposition to the Organization Man.

b The idea of the Organization Man existed before the essay was written.

c A person devoted to his company loses his/her individual freedom and identity.

d Lincoln opposed the ideas presented in the book, the Organization Man.

Solution:

Refer to the line "The central concern of the unbylined essay was the rise of the Organization Man, an idea that was at that point about a decade old." Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) is wrong because we cannot infer from the passage that 'capital-I Individual' is in any written form. Option (c) cannot be inferred as the passage only talks of the businessman being devoted to his company. Option (d) is ruled out because the passage only talks of Lincoln being an example and not of his views on the Organization Man.

Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 85 to 88: Answer the questions based on the following information.

A group of eight athletes from South India are preparing to participate in the Shooting or Weight Lifting competitions in the Olympics 2016. Each athlete belongs to exactly one state out of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, and there is at least one athlete from each state. All female athletes belong to Andhra Pradesh. The results after the first round of screening are as follows:
I. At least two athletes have qualified for Shooting competition, but not for the Weight Lifting competition.
II. At least two athletes have qualified for Weight Lifting competition, but not for the Shooting competition.
III. At least one athlete has qualified for both the competitions.
IV. Among the eight athletes, only athletes from Karnataka have qualified for Weight Lifting competition.

Q.85
Which of the following statements CANNOT be true?

a The group includes more females than males.

b The group includes fewer athletes from Karnataka than those from Tamil Nadu.

c The group includes fewer athletes from Tamil Nadu than those from Andhra Pradesh.

d More athletes have qualified for Weight Lifting than Shooting.

Solution:

Number of qualified athletes for Weight Lifting is at least 3. So at least 3 athletes are from Karnataka, all of whom are male. Atleast one athlete must be from TN and all athletes from TN are male. Thus, at least 4 athletes must be male. So it is not possible that there can be more females than males in the group.

Correct Answer : a

Q.86
If each athlete has qualified to compete in at least one of the two competitions, all of the following must be true EXCEPT:

a All athletes from Andhra Pradesh have qualified for Shooting.

b All athletes from Tamil Nadu have qualified for Shooting.

c All athletes from Karnataka have qualified for Weight Lifting.

d No athlete from Andhra Pradesh has qualified for Weight Lifting.

Solution:

All athletes except those from Karnataka have qualified for "Shooting" but not for "Weight Lifting". However it is possible for a athlete from Karnataka to have qualified for "Shooting" but not "Weight Lifting". Hence nothing can be said for sure for "All Athletes from Karnataka".

Correct Answer : c

Q.87
If four of the athletes are male and four of the athletes are female, all of the following must be true EXCEPT:

a One of the athletes is from Tamil Nadu.

b Four athletes are from Andhra Pradesh.

c Three athletes are from Karnataka.

d Four athletes have qualified for the Shooting competition.

Solution:

Since all females must be from AP, all athletes from Karnataka and TN must be male. There must be at least one athlete from each state, so one athlete must be from TN and 3 athletes must be from Karnataka. The remaining 4 must be from AP. Thus statements a, b and c must be true.

Correct Answer : d

Q.88
If the group includes more athletes from Tamil Nadu than those from Karnataka, the number of male athletes who have qualified for the Shooting competition cannot be less than

a 0

b 1

c 2

d 3

Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Six friends — George, John, Antony, Dhaanush, Sandeep and Ravi — are married to six different ladies — Arpita, Kamya, Jacklin, Nishita, Mamta and Deepika — not necessarily in the same order. Each of the six friends belongs to a different city from among Patiala, Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Bangalore. Each of them plays a different game from among Cricket, Football, Basketball, Billiards, TT and Badminton.
It is also known that:
I. Husbands of Jacklin, Mamta or Deepika do not play Football or Basketball.
II. The friend from Mumbai plays Cricket.
III. Ravi, who is from Bangalore, plays Football.
IV. Antony and Sandeep, neither of whom is from Mumbai, are married to Arpita and Nishita respectively.
V. The friends from Delhi and Kolkata play TT and Basketball respectively.
VI. Dhaanush is from Chennai.
VII. Antony plays Billiards.

Q.89
The friend from Kolkata is married to

a Jacklin

b Nishita

c Arpita

d Cannot be determined

Solution:

Nishita is married to the man from Kolkata.

Correct Answer : b

Q.90
The friend who plays Billiards is from

a Chennai

b Patiala

c Bangalore

d Cannot be determined

Solution:

Antony plays Billiards and belongs to Patiala.

Correct Answer : b

Q.91
Dhaanush plays

a Badminton

b Football

c Basketball

d Cannot be determined

Solution:

Dhaanush plays Badminton.

Correct Answer : a

Q.92
If Mamta's husband plays TT and Deepika is married to George, then Dhaanush's wife is

a Mamta

b Kamya

c Jacklin

d None of these

Solution:

In this scenario Jacklin is Dhaanush's wife.

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions based on the following information.

There are seven coconut trees in Baghban's garden. Baghban has named these trees as Amitabh, Hrithik, Chunky, Dilip, Fardeen, Feroz and Govinda. The trees are situated in a row in increasing order of their heights, not necessarily in the given order, either from left to right or from right to left. It is known that their heights (in feet) are seven consecutive natural numbers between 1 and 10, both inclusive. Further, following clues are given about their positions and heights:
I. Amitabh is 3 feet taller than Dilip.
II. Hrithik is situated in the middle of the row.
III. The absolute difference between the heights of Hrithik and Feroz, who is shorter between the two, is the same as the absolute difference between the heights of Dilip and Chunky, who is taller between the two.
IV. Feroz is shorter than Govinda.

Q.93
The absolute difference between the heights of Fardeen and Hrithik is the same as the absolute difference between the heights of Dilip and

a Amitabh

b Hrithik

c Chunky

d Fardeen

Solution:

Denote the positions as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 from left to right in increasing order of heights. We know that Hrithik is in position 4. Also Amitabh – Dilip = 3. Thus, Amitabh cannot come at position 7 since then Dilip would have to come at position 4, which is already occupied. Also Amitabh has to be greater than 3 or else Dilip would be negative. Thus, only positions for Amitabh are 5 and 6. Assume one of them and proceed.
If Amitabh is at position 6: Dilip is at positon 3.
Also Hrithik – Feroz = Chunky – Dilip.
Feroz being shorter than Hrithik can come at positions either 1 or 2. If Feroz is at position 1, Chunky has to be at position 6 which is not possible. Thus, Feroz can be only at position 2 and Chunky at position 5. Left positions are 1 and 7 and since Feroz is shorter than Govinda, Govinda is at position 7 and Fardeen at position 1.

If Amitabh is in position 5: Dilip is at position 2. Using the same logic as above, Feroz can be at position either 1 or 3 and accordingly Chunky will be at position either 5 or 3. Both of these is not possible. Thus, Amitabh cannot be in position 5. Thus, final position:
Fardeen < Feroz < Dilip < Hrithik < Chunky < Amitabh < Govinda
Amitabh

Correct Answer : a

Q.94
The absolute difference between the heights (in inches) of Govinda and Dilip is

a 12

b 24

c 48

d Cannot be determined

Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Q.95
The greatest possible values of the height of Amitabh is greater than the least possible value of the height of Feroz by

a 5 feet

b 6 feet

c 7 feet

d 8 feet

Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Q.96
What is the average of possible heights of Dilip?

a 3 feet

b 4 feet

c 4.5 feet

d Cannot be determined

Solution:

Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Some lecturers belonging to four disciplines, viz. physics, chemistry, mathematics and biology were selected to take part in a conclave. All applicants shortlisted for the selection were classified into five age groups, namely:

For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from diciplines physics, chemistry and biology put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.97
If the number of physics lecturers was greater than the number of chemistry lecturers, then which of the following is NOT possible to determine?

a Number of middle aged physics lecturers.

b Number of retired physics lecturers.

c Number of middle aged chemistry lecturers.

d Number of retired chemistry lecturers.

Solution:

Number of physics lecturers > number of chemistry lecturers.
Let there be 1 middle aged physics lecturer and 2 middle aged chemistry lecturers.
Then, maximum possible value of the number of physics lecturers = 2 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 6
Minimum possible value of the number of chemistry lecturers = 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 =
In this case number of physics lecturers can't be more than the number of chemistry lecturers.
So, it is not possible.
It is clear that there are 2 middle aged physics lecturers and 1 middle aged chemistry lecturer.
Number of physics lecturers (excluding the retired age group) = 2 + 2 + 1 = 5
Number of chemistry lecturers (excluding the retired age group) = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 4
Now, if there is 1 retired physics lecturer then there must be 2 retired chemistry lecturer. In this case, total physics lecturers cannot be more than chemistry lecturer.
So, there must be 2 retired physics lecturers.
Hence, number of retired chemistry lecturers may be 1 or 2.

Correct Answer : d

For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from disciplines physics, chemistry and biology put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.98
What can be said about the total number of physics and chemistry lecturers put together?
I. It was less than or equal to 12.
II. It was more than or equal to 12.

a Only I

b Only II

c Both I and II

d Neither I nor II

Solution:

Number of retired biology lecturers may be 1 or 2. So, from above table it is clear that total number of physics and chemistry lecturers put together must be either 12 or 13.

Correct Answer : b

For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from disciplines physics, chemistry and biology put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.99
If Kandy was the lone retired chemistry lecturer, then which of the following is definitely true?

a There was one middle aged physics lecturer.

b There were two middle-aged physics lecturers.

c There was one retired biology lecturer.

d There were two retired biology lecturers.

Solution:

If there is only 1 retired chemistry lecturer, then there must be 2 retired physics lecturers and 2 retired biology lecturers.

Correct Answer : d

For the conclave, not more than two lecturers of a particular age group were shortlisted for representing a discipline. Initially, the maximum possible number of lecturers were shortlisted. However, only five more than half of them were selected and they finally participated in the conclave. The following observations about the selected lecturers were made:
I.If two lecturers were excluded from the retired lecturers, then the number of seniors and stalwarts, each is one less than the number in each of the other three age groups.
II.The total number of lecturers selected from disciplines physics, chemistry and biology put together was the square of an integer.
III.There was no biology lecturer who was middle aged or stalwart, and there was no physics lecturer who was a senior. Every other discipline was represented by at least one lecturer from each age group.
IV.Rocky and Platy were young physics lecturers.

Q.100
Which of the following was NOT possible?

a Two retired physics lecturers and two retired chemistry lecturers were selected for the conclave.

b One retired physics lecturer and two retired chemistry lecturers were selected for the conclave.

c One retired physics lecturer and one retired chemistry lecturer were selected for the conclave.

d Two retired physics lecturers and one retired chemistry lecturer were selected for the conclave.

Solution:

From the above table it is sure that there can't be one retired physics lecturer and retired chemistry lecturer because in this case there would be 4 retired biology lecturers, which is not possible.

Correct Answer : c

QUESTION BANK

Monday 26 October 2015

CL MOCK 1502

Solutions of Mock CAT - 02 2015

Sec 1

Sec 2

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