Saturday 31 October 2015

CL 15 03

Solutions of Mock CAT - 03 2015


  • QA&DI
  • VA&LR
  •  

    Sec 1

      Q.1 
    The price of an article was first increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%. If the final price became Rs. 20, then the initial price (in Rs.) of the article was
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.2 
    If f(x) = max {x2 – 4, –4x, 4x}, then find the minimum value of f(x).
    a   –4
     –2
     1
     0
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.3 
    There is an isosceles right-angled triangle, the length of whose sides are 4, 4 and 4√2 units. Find the minimum length of the cut, which can divide the triangle into 2 parts of equal area.
    a   2√2 units
     2√ 5units
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.4 
    If the difference between the number of arrangements of 3 items out of a certain number of dissimilar items and the number of selections of three items from the same number of dissimilar items exceeds 100, what is the least value of the number of dissimilar items?
    a   5
     6
     7
     9
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.5 
    The product of three positive integers is 6 times their sum. One of the integers is equal to the sum of the other two. Find the sum of all distinct possible products of these three integers.
    a   336
     252
     144
     324
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.6 
    Ramu has a gift shop, where he keeps a few similar articles. He observes that when number of units of an article sold on a day increases, the profit that he makes per article, on that day, decreases. Ramu, who is an expert mathematician, has also identified that when he sells (x + 2) articles in a day, he earns a profit per article of Rs. (12 – 3x). What can be his maximum profit (in Rs.) on any given day?
    a   12
     27
     6
     depends on x
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.7 
    What is the sum of the series  upto 14th term?
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.8 
    Four spherical balls are kept in a conical flask, as shown in the figure below, in such a way that each of the two balls in the middle touches the ball above and the ball below it, and all balls touch the lateral surface of the cone. Which of the following can be radii (in units) of the spheres, from the smallest to the largest?
    a   2, 4, 6, 8
     2, 6, 10, 15
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.9 
    ABCD is a square. Points P, Q, R and S are on sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. The square PQRS is formed by joining the points P, Q, R and S respectively. If the area of square PQRS is 5/8th the area of ABCD and AP < PB, find the ratio of AP : PB.
    a   3 : 8
     1 : 3
     3 : 5
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.10 
    A die is rolled three times. What is the probability that the number that turns up in the second roll is more than that which turns up in the first roll and the number that turns up in the third roll is more than that which turns up in the second roll?
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.11 
    V is a natural number below 1100 which has 32 divisors. Find the sum of the digits of 'V'.
    a   9
     18
     12
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.12 
    In a nautanki party of 60 friends, 20% of the friends cannot sing, 80% of the friends can dance and 50% of them can do mimicry. What can be the maximum number of friends who can sing, dance and mimic?
    a   33
     30
     10
     6
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.13 
    A right circular cone is cut into five slices, by making four cuts, each of which is parallel to its base. Heights of all the slices are equal. By what percentage is the volume of the middle-most slice lesser than the volume of the largest slice?
    a   82.4%
     41.3%
     68.9%
     55.3%
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.14 
    The percentage volumes of alcohol in three solutions – S1, S2 and S3 – form a geometric progression in that order. If we mix the first, second and third solutions in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4, we obtain a solution containing 32% alcohol. If we mix them in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1, we obtain a solution containing 22% alcohol. What is the percentage of alcohol in S1?
    a   6%
     12%
     18%
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.15 
    P1 × P2 × P3 × P4 × P5 × P6 × P7 = 360360, where  Natural Number, P1 + P2 + P5 = 14 and P7 < 20. If the product of P5, P6 and P7 is an odd number, then what is the value of (P5 + P6 + P7)?
    a   39
     33
     31
     Not unique
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.16 
    Find the dimension of the cube of maximum possible volume that can be placed inside a hollow cone with base diameter 12 cm and height 8 cm.
    a   4.8 cm
     
     
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.17 
    The sum of 1 + 3x + 6x2 + 10x3 + 15x4 ..... to infinity, |x| being less than 1, is:
    a   
     
     
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.18 
    In ABC, having G as its orthocenter, D is the midpoint of BC. Also, the area of ABC is five times the area of GDC and ABC = 60°. If the minimum distance between any point on BC and point A is 10 cm, find the length of GC? (G lies within ABC)
    a   
     4 cm
     8 cm
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.19 
    A boy has two bags namely P1 and P2. P1 contains 3 Red and 2 Blue balls. P2 contains 2 Red and 3 Blue balls. A ball is picked from P1 and put into P2. Then a ball is picked from P2 and put into P1. What is the probability that the Red-Blue composition of balls remains unchanged in the two bags?
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.20 
    What is the value of (a + c) if (a × c × ac = ccc) where, a and c are non-zero single digit numbers and ac is a 2 digit number whose tens digit is a and unit digit is c?
    a   11
     10
     12
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.21 
    A number is formed by writing all the integral multiples of 3 between 1 and 200, side by side in ascending order. What is the 100th digit of the number from the left end?
    a   1
     3
     8
     7
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.22 
    If Sr stands for the sum of the first r terms of an Arithmetic Progression, then S3r :(S2r – Sr) is equal to
    a   
     3r
     3
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.23 
    Ram and Kanti working together can complete a job in  Ram started working alone and quit the job after completing 1/3rd of it, and then Kanti completed the remaining work. They took 25 days to complete the work in this manner. How many days could Kanti have taken to complete the job working alone?
    a   21
     23
     27
     29
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.24 
    The number of solution(s) of the simultaneous equations V = 3loge K and V = loge(3K) is/are
    a   Three
     One
     Two
     Zero
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.25 
    There are 98 given points on a circle. Amar, Akbar and Anthony start playing a game by drawing a chord, one by one, by joining any two of the points which have not yet been joined together. The game ends when all such points have been joined exhaustively. The winner is the one who draws the last chord. If Anthony starts the game, followed by Akbar, and then Amar, then who will win?
    a   Amar
     Akbar
     Anthony
     Data Insufficient
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.26 
    Last year I visited the Royal Enfield showroom on Diwali eve. I asked the price of a bullet, and the salesman replied, "the list price is Rs.1,20,000, however it is available at  discount with Rs.20,000 down payment and 3 equal installments payable annually at 20% rate of interest per annum". The amount that I have to pay at the end of each year is approximately
    a   Rs.46,080
     Rs.39,778
     Rs.38,779
     Rs.37,978
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.27 
    Two cyclists are travelling at 3 km/hr and 10 km/hr around a circular track. What should be the ratio of number of distinct points that they would meet on that track if they first travel 10 rounds in same direction and then 10 rounds in opposite direction?
    a   7 : 13
     3 : 10
     3 : 7
     30 : 13
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.28 
    A circle of radius 6 cm is cut into 6 sectors, all of which subtend equal angles at the centre. The area (in cm2) of the largest circle that can be drawn inside each of these sectors is
    a   3
     4
     6
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.29 
    Let n be a positive integer not divisible by 5. Which of the following numbers must leave 1 as remainder when divided by 5 ?
    a   n2
     n4
     n6
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.30 
    In the given figure, ABCD is a square, and P, Q, R and S are the mid-points of AB, BC, CD and AD respectively. Find the ratio of the area of the shaded region to the area of the square ABCD.
    a   1 : 3
     1 : 4
     1 : 5
     1 : 6
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.31 
    How many points with integral coordinates are there inside a triangle, of area 250 sq units, that is right angled at (0,0) and has a vertex at (25,0)?
    a   228
     227
     225
     226
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.32 
    Mohan and Rakesh are two friends. Mohan lives in 'Villa-Kila' and Rakesh lives in 'Killa-Vila'. One day, Rakesh invited Mohan to his 'Killa-Vila' for lunch. Mohan took his car out and started his journey towards Rakesh's house. Rakesh also took his bike out and started travelling towards Mohan's house to receive his guest. When they met, they found that each of them had covered the same distance. However, Rakesh took 2 hours more than Mohan to do so. Without wasting any time they started moving towards 'Killa-Vila' at their respective speeds. Mohan, upon reaching 'Killa-Vila', discovered that Rakesh is far behind him and thus he went to his Uncle's residence, which was 20 km ahead of 'Killa-Vila' on the same road. His uncle was not at home, hence he immediately turned back towards 'Killa-Vila' and finally, they reached 'Killa-Vila' simultaneously. After spending 1 hour at 'Killa-Vila', Mohan returned to his house and noticed that his journey took a total of 19 hours, including his stay at 'Killa-Vila'. What distance did Mohan travel throughout the journey?
    a   240 km
     180 km
     360 km
     200 km
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.33 
    Find the number of solutions of the equation log2(x + 5) = 6 - x.
    a   0
     1
     2
     None of these
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.34 
    In the figure given below, triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle, with centre O. PC is a tangent to the circle at point C. If DP = 5 cm, find the length (in cm) of OD.
    a   
     
     
     
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 2013 and 2014.
      Q.35 
    It is known that an increase in per capita income always results in an increase in peak power demand. If year-on-year percentage increase in per capita income is denoted by IPC and year-on-year percentage increase in peak power demand is denoted by IPP, for how many cities was (IPC – IPP) negative when calculated over the period of 2013 and 2014?
    a   0
     1
     2
     3
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 2013 and 2014.
      Q.36 
    It is known that in a city each person generates the same amount of waste and for each of the four cities, percentage increase in waste generated per person in 2014 compared to that in 2013 is denoted by x. The value of x for different cities is as follows:


    Which of the following cities witnessed maximum percentage increase in its population in 2014 over 2013?
    a   Bangalore
     Chennai
     Pune
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 2013 and 2014.
      Q.37 
    Which city witnessed the maximum percentage increase in its population in 2014 over that in 2013?
    a   Bangalore
     Pune
     Chennai
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The charts given below show the data related to a few parameters for four cities of India for 2013 and 2014.
      Q.38 
    Over the given period, the total number of violent crimes committed in Pune and Chennai put together was what percent of the total crimes committed in Hyderabad and Bangalore put together?
    a   64.72
     63.98
     65.80
     70.20
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.
      Q.39 
    For how many years, were the marks allotted to geometry questions lesser than those allotted to analogies as well as arithmetic?
    a   1
     2
     3
     None of these
    Solution:
    One year only in 2000.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.
      Q.40 
    Which topic accounted for the second lowest number of marks over the given period?
    a   Arithmetic
     Parajumbles
     Analogies
     Modern Maths
    Solution:
    The least marks was constituted by modern maths.
    The next least one was analogies.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.
      Q.41 
    Which year's paper had the maximum number of total questions during the given period?
    a   1998
     1999
     Both (1) and (2)
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Marks per question is not given.
    Hence total number of questions cannot be determined.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the break-up of marks across various topics in an examination called KAT for the period of six years from 1998 to 2003. In each of these years, the questions were asked from the given topics only. The examination is conducted once a year.
      Q.42 
    How many of the topics witnessed positive and negative growth rates for 2000 and 2001 respectively?
    a   5
     6
     8
     None of these
    Solution:
    Number of topics that experienced positive growth rate in 2000 over the previous year = 5 (analogies, data sufficiency, mathematical reasoning, modern maths, sentence correction).
    Each one of them had a negative growth rate in 2001.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars sold in India in 2013.
      Q.43 
    If Hyundai sold 6000 Midsize cars in India in 2013, then the number of SUV cars sold by the brand which had the second highest share in SUV category could not be more than
    a   3600
     4200
     4500
     None of these
    Solution:
    Midsize cars makes 20% of Hyundai sales and SUV makes 10% of this, so sales of Hyundai SUV is 3000. Hence, total SUV sales is 20000.
    These 5 brands make up to 82% of SUV sale so if the rest of 18% sale is by a single brand then it has the second highest share.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars sold in India in 2013.
      Q.44 
    What was the ratio of the number of Honda Sedans sold to the number of Midsize cars sold in India in 2013?
    a   15 : 8
     8 : 15
     3 : 10
     6 : 5
    Solution:
    Let the total Honda sale be x
    Sales of Honda Sedan will be 0.4x
    Sales of Honda midsize will be 0.25x
    In midsize, Honda share is 33.33%, hence total midsize
    sale will be 0.75x
    So, required ratio is 0.4x : 0.75x = 8 : 15.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars sold in India in 2013.
      Q.45 
    If BMW sold 25000 cars in India in 2013, then what was the number of Sedans sold by the brand which has the smallest share in that category?
    a   1200
     4000
     6000
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    In Sedan category, 5% of total sales is made by others which can be further divided also.
    Hence, we do not know the share of the smallest brand in Sedan category.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    The following table gives the brand-wise percentage distribution of certain categories of cars sold in India in 2013.
      Q.46 
    Revenue earned by Maruti from Small cars was what percentage of the revenue earned by Honda from Sedans?
    a   111.1%
     112.5%
     87.5%
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    Since, we do not know the price of a car of any category for any of the brand. Hence, the revenues cannot be compared.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five national selectors – S1, S2, S3, S4 and S5 – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

    According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0 respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

    The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors is 14.



    Additional Information:
    (i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin's Grade-Average was the highest.
    (ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of Kohli.
    (iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
    (iv) S3 and S5 gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from S3 and S5.
    (v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.
    (vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
    (vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.
      Q.47 
    If the Grade Average of Zaheer was better than that of Sehwag, and all the selectors, except one, gave higher grade to Zaheer than that to Sehwag, what was the grade given by S1 to Zaheer?
    a   III
     IV
     II
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five national selectors – S1, S2, S3, S4 and S5 – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

    According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0 respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

    The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors is 14.



    Additional Information:
    (i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin's Grade-Average was the highest.
    (ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of Kohli.
    (iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
    (iv) S3 and S5 gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from S3 and S5.
    (v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.
    (vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
    (vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.
      Q.48 
    If the Grade Average of Sehwag and Dhoni was the same, then how many different values of Grade Average were possible for Ashwin?
    a   4
     2
     3
     5
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five national selectors – S1, S2, S3, S4 and S5 – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

    According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0 respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

    The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors is 14.



    Additional Information:
    (i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin's Grade-Average was the highest.
    (ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of Kohli.
    (iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
    (iv) S3 and S5 gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from S3 and S5.
    (v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.
    (vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
    (vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.
      Q.49 
    If S3 gave higher grade than S5 to both Sachin and Rohit, the sum of points given by S3 to Uttappa, Sachin and Rohit can take how many different value?
    a   5
     6
     4
     9
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five national selectors – S1, S2, S3, S4 and S5 – gave different grades out of I, II, III, IV and V to the cricketers on the basis of their performance in 2014.

    According to the grading system, grades I, II, III, IV, and V fetch points 7,5,4,2 and 0 respectively. Grade-Average for a player is defined as the arithmetic mean of the points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors.

    The following table gives the partial information regarding the grades, along with Grade-Average, received by a few Indian players. For example Pathan's Grade-Average is 2.8, which means the total points fetched by the grades that he was given by the selectors is 14.



    Additional Information:
    (i) No selector gave grade V to Sachin and Rohit. Sachin's Grade-Average was the highest.
    (ii) The Grade-Average of Sehwag was better than that of Rohit but worse than that of Kohli.
    (iii) No selector gave grade I or grade V to Zaheer.
    (iv) S3 and S5 gave the same grade to Dhoni and Ashwin. Dhoni got the same grade from S3 and S5.
    (v) No player got grade V from more than one selector.
    (vi) Three selectors gave the same grade to Uttappa.
    (vii) No three selectors gave the same grade to Zaheer. The same was true for Ashwin.
      Q.50 
    How many different values of Grade Average are possible for Zaheer?
    a   3
     4
     5
     6
    Solution:
      Correct Answer : a

    Sec 2

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse. 

    Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness. 

    Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate. Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm, love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or community but choose to use violence at home. 

    There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.
      Q.51 
    Which of the following options best summarises the point that the author makes in the passage?
    a   The emotional and traumatic impact on a victim of domestic violence
     The impact of domestic violence on the woman and the child
     The anatomy of violent behaviour at home
     The factors and response mechanisms related to domestic violence
    Solution:
    The author starts the passage by discussing the traumatic effects of domestic violence on the victim. The passage moves into further detail on why the victim finds it difficult to escape the violence and also discusses the points for effective intervention. There is an assertion, further, that states the role of the perpetrator and mentions that a solution must also take into account this role. The last paragraph attempts to address the correct process in dealing with domestic violence. Option (d) is thus the answer. Option (a) is too specific and mentions only one part of the discussion. Option (b) does not include the resolution of / response to issues related to domestic violence. Option (c) is incorrect because it is too general - violent behaviour at home may also include women and children who have a predisposition to violence.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse. 

    Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness. 

    Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate. Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm, love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or community but choose to use violence at home. 

    There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.
      Q.52 
    It can be inferred from the passage, that
    a   domestic violence can be more effectively tackled if the perpetrator is counselled in the early stages.
     perpetrators of domestic violence usually choose the time and place of attack.
     perpetrators of domestic violence can also exhibit signs of schizophrenic behaviour.
     perpetrators of domestic violence use violence in private and not in public places.
    Solution:
    Refer to the third paragraph. Option (b) can be inferred from the second sentence that states that assaults are often planned and deliberate i.e. the time of the attack is planned. The last sentence also states that many perpetrators of domestic violence are not violent in a public place or at the workplace, indicating that the place of attack is also chosen by the perpetrator. Option (a) is not mentioned in the passage and hence cannot be inferred. Option (c) is an invalid inference as schizophrenic behaviour would require a clinical opinion and discussion. The passage does not move into the clinical realm and hence this option cannot be inferred. Option (d) is incorrect because not all perpetrators show violence only at home. Also, apart from the home, there are numerous private places (for e.g. a friend's place) that are not covered in the passage. And hence one cannot infer that perpetrators use violence in these private places too.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse. 

    Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness. 

    Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate. Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm, love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or community but choose to use violence at home. 

    There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.
      Q.53 
    Which of the following options would the author most agree with?
    a   Focusing on the victim is ineffective in the quest for resolution of a domestic violence issue.
     An incorrect assessment of the risk to the victim may allow for further acts of violence on the same victim.
     Future acts of violence can be stopped if there is focus on the victim as well as the perpetrator.
     Accountability in the first instance itself will be a deterrent for future acts of domestic violence.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is an incorrect inference because in the last paragraph, the author states that that a purely victim focus is not effective for achieving sustainable safety. The option indicates that focusing on the victim (even with a focus on the perpetrator) may be incorrect. Option (b) is beyond the scope of the passage as there is no discussion on the effects of an incorrect risk assessment. Option (c) holds a utopian point of view. The passage states that a focus on the victim and on the perpetrator (holding him accountable) will be a more effective approach to take. However, one cannot infer that acts of violence will stop altogether if this approach is taken. Option (d) can be inferred from lines 7-12 of the last paragraph. These lines indicate that once a victim is safely placed away from the perpetrator, the latter may soon find a new victim. And hence ensuring accountability with the first victim itself will be more effective than just ensuring the safety of the victim (indicating that this step will act as a deterrent for future acts of violence).
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 51 to 54: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    Adult victims of family and domestic violence experience a range of consequences including (but not limited to) physical injury, chronic health issues, emotional distress and social isolation. The impact of ongoing family and domestic violence is traumatising particularly where the victim experiences death threats or lethal behaviours. Despite often horrific experiences of violence, the decision to leave and remain separated from the perpetrator can be complex. One of the biggest challenges in supporting an adult victim to leave is overcoming the emotional and traumatic impacts of the abuse. 

    Most women who have experienced family and domestic violence report that, in hindsight, the emotional abuse that occurred was far more debilitating and destructive than any of the physical assaults that occurred as it causes pervasive feelings of worthlessness, shame, self-blame, fear and helplessness. These emotional consequences can create complex barriers to a woman's escape from violence, including fears about their ability to cope without the perpetrator, their safety if they try to escape, not being believed, exclusion from their social networks or community, and issues related to child custody including presumptions about 'shared care'. It is therefore important that interventions recognise that the non-abusive parent is as much a victim of the violence as their children and that the perpetrator must be held responsible and accountable for the violent behaviour. Effective intervention is likely to reduce the risk of future harm and locate responsibility for the violence with the perpetrator. Effective intervention helps to counteract the impacts of the emotional abuse on the adult victim and children by reducing feelings of self-blame and hopelessness. 

    Perpetrators of family and domestic violence are very much in control of the behaviour and are ultimately the only ones that have the capacity to change the situation. This is most clearly demonstrated in the fact that assaults are often planned and deliberate. Many victims of family and domestic violence (adult and child) report that the perpetrator can be like 'Jekyll and Hyde' - able to provide a public veneer of charm, love and protectiveness but behave in cruel, violent, undermining and manipulative ways in private. This is further demonstrated by the fact that many perpetrators of family and domestic violence are not violent in their workplace, social network or community but choose to use violence at home. 

    There are individual, community and familial factors that contribute to a person's decision to use violence. These factors should be considered in assessments of risk and the development of responses (risk management) but they should not obscure that the responsibility for violence, including the capacity to change, is always located with the person using violence. Historically, responses to family and domestic violence have focused on securing the safety of the adult victim and child. It is now well established through research. Typically, the violence and abuse continue and/or the perpetrator forms a new relationship in which they continued to use violence, creating a new victim in need of protection. This often creates a revolving door for child protection and other services. Good practice now advocates for an equal focus on securing the safety of the non-abusive adult victim and child and addressing the source of the harm - the perpetrator of the violence. To improve the safety of the non-abusive parent and child and reduce the risk of reoffending, it is critical that the perpetrator is held accountable for their behaviour. This process needs to begin with an assessment of the risk and in most cases will involve a coordinated inter-agency response.
      Q.54 
    Which one of the following options has not been mentioned as a reason to deter women from escaping domestic violence?
    a   The breakdown of the woman's self-esteem.
     A perception that she is the reason for the crime against her.
     A constant need for attention from the partner even if it is in the form of violence.
     Being singled out as an 'odd one' in the community.
    Solution:
    Refer to the second paragraph that mentions the reasons why women find it difficult to escape the violence against them. Option (a) can be inferred from the first sentence of the paragraph (pervasive feelings of worthlessness). Option (b) can also be inferred from the first sentence (pervasive feelings of selfblame). Option (c) cannot be inferred from the passage - there is no mention of the victims' constant need for attention or even any form of recognition. Option (d) can be inferred from the second sentence of the paragraph (exclusion from their social networks or community).
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in academia. 

    Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach; detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade; knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as yoga. 

    Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet, recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement." 

    Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to enumerate them here." 

    Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of the Indians in all branches of knowledge." 

    The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process. "Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid "celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.
      Q.55 
    Which of the following options would best explain the phrase "The mosaic that emerged from this research contrasts sharply..."?
    a   The research led to a perspective, composed of a combination of diverse elements that was different from the popular representation.
     The research helped establish that Hindu accounts of the ancient world are mostly ignored by the West, or simply labelled as biased or wrong.
     The research threw light on the deeply contested nature of the adjective Hindu and its association with a particular kind of nationalist politics.
     The research has helped establish that Hindu culture has a long and glorious intellectual tradition.
    Solution:
    The last sentence of the first paragraph has the highlighted phrase. The purpose of the last sentence is to establish the fact that the research that was done helped bring out a perspective that contrasted sharply (was different from) with the popular (common) representation in the media and in academic circles. The research led to a perspective, a mosaic (a combination of diverse elements) that was different. Option (a) is thus the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect because there is no indication in the passage that the West has ignored or incorrectly understood Hindu accounts of the ancient world. Option (c) is incorrect because it brings in a political nature to an apolitical passage. Option (d) fails to correctly bring out the meaning of the highlighted phrase, which is to place emphasis on the fact that the research brought out a contrasting perception.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in academia. 

    Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach; detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade; knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as yoga. 

    Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet, recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement." 

    Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to enumerate them here." 

    Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of the Indians in all branches of knowledge." 

    The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process. "Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid "celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.
      Q.56 
    Which of the following options would best explain the rationale for the second paragraph?
    a   Use of examples to support the assertion that India has contributed greatly to modern science and medicine.
     Use of examples to support the assertion that India has a setting that induces growth and prosperity.
     Use of examples to support the thought that India's contributions have helped in the self-growth of individuals.
     Use of examples to support the view that the Hindu race was superior to races in other Eastern nations.
    Solution:
    Logical flow of thought would point to the fact that the purpose of the second paragraph would be to introduce the assertion in the third paragraph or to contrast with it. However, since the paragraph is primarily filled with examples which naturally help establish the thought in the succeeding paragraph, Option (b) can clearly be inferred to be the answer. The third paragraph states that India has a favorable atmosphere for growth (intellectual, biological, material, social etc.) and prosperity. Option (a) can be ruled out because the question asks for the rationale for the second paragraph and not for the examples in the second paragraph. Had it been the latter, then option (a) would emerge as the answer. Option (c) is incorrect because it is not only self-growth of an individual but growth and prosperity related to mineral resources, biodiversity, climate and society. Option (d) is incorrect because the third paragraph mentions Emerson's view that Hindus were superior to races in the rest of Eastern nation. However, this is not the author's view and hence the rationale for the second paragraph can not be this option.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in academia. 

    Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach; detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade; knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as yoga. 

    Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet, recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement." 

    Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to enumerate them here." 

    Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of the Indians in all branches of knowledge." 

    The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process. "Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid "celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.
      Q.57 
    Based on the last paragraph, which of the following options would best explain why debate and discussion were encouraged in India?
    a   It helped present an equal platform through which one could air his/her views.
     It led to the superior thinking capacity of the Hindu race.
     It helped in the intellectual and social development of the individual.
     It helped in the sharing of knowledge and understanding.
    Solution:
    The last paragraph discusses the importance given to debate and discussion amongst Hindus. Lines 3-6 help understand the reasons why debate was encouraged - it increased knowledge and dialectical skills, it brought about happiness and also avoided any social stigma or social accolades to the debater. This indicates that debate helped in the social development (discussion amongst peers and the maintenance of equality) and the intellectual development (increased knowledge and understanding). The first line of the paragraph also indicates that debate was not used only in science but in other parts of the Hindu culture (marriage). Hence, option (c) is the answer. Option (a) does not voice the advantages of debate. It only presents a feature of the debates that were held amongst Hindus - the presence of an equal platform. Option (b) is incorrect because there is no information to indicate that other societies in other countries did not encourage debates and hence the Hindu race had a superior thinking capacity because they did. Option (d) is incorrect because it presents part of the reason why debate was encouraged and fails to bring in the entire perspective.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 55 to 58: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    These accounts presented a much different picture. Even in the modern era, thinkers and scientists as diverse as Goethe, Emerson, Thoreau, Jung, Oppenheimer, Herder and Schrodinger, to name a few, have acknowledged their debt to ancient Hindu achievements in science, technology and philosophy. The mosaic that emerged from this research contrasts sharply with the common portrayal in the popular media and even in academia. 

    Modern science and medicine would be primitive and unrecognizable without the immense contribution of the ancient Hindus. They invented everyday essentials such as our base-ten number system and the concept of zero as a numeral. They developed the sophisticated system of medicine known as ayurveda, with its mind-body approach; detailed anatomical and surgical knowledge of the human body, including cataract surgery and the so-called plastic surgery. They unfolded metallurgical methods of extraction and purification of metals, including the so-called Damascus blade; knowledge of various constellations and planetary motions that was good enough to assign motion to the Earth; and the science of self-improvement popularly known as yoga. 

    Intellectual curiosity can manifest in any circumstances, but certain conditions are particularly conducive to intellectual growth. India's vast mineral resources, diverse plant and animal life, favorable climate and sound social ethics provided material prosperity and social stability to the region and fostered the intellectual endeavors of the Hindus. Ralph Waldo Emerson, an eminent American philosopher and poet, recognized this when he wrote: "The favor of the climate, making subsistence easy and encouraging an outdoor life, allows to the Eastern nations a highly intellectual organization—leaving out of view, at present, the genius of Hindus, whom no people have surpassed in the grandeur of their ethical statement." 

    Megasthenes, an ambassador of Seleucus I, visited the Indus-Saraswati region and reported that the people, "having abundant means of subsistence, exceed in consequence the ordinary stature and are distinguished by their proud bearing. They are also found to be well skilled in the arts, as might be expected of men who inhale a pure air and drink the very finest water." The Chinese traveling monk Yijing made similar observations of the region's prosperity: "ghee, oil, milk and cream are found everywhere. Such things as cakes and fruit are so abundant that it is difficult to enumerate them here." 

    Sa'id al-Andalusi, a natural philosopher from Muslim Spain, wrote a book on the history of science, Tabaqat al Umam, in which he categorized nations based on their contributions to science. Al-Andalusi credited India with its leadership in science and technology: "The first nation to have cultivated science is India. This is a powerful nation, having a large population and a rich kingdom. India is known for the wisdom of its people. Over many centuries, all the kings of the past have recognized the ability of the Indians in all branches of knowledge." 

    The practice of debate was ingrained and highly valued among the Hindus. In fact, it was one of the eight ways to select the groom for a bride. A medical treatise, the Caraka-Samhita, emphasizes the role of debate and discussion in the learning process. "Discussion with a person of the same branch of science increases knowledge and brings happiness. It contributes towards the clarity of understanding, increases dialectical skill, broadcasts reputation and dispels doubts regarding things heard. Hence, it is the discussion with men of the same branch of science that is applauded by the wise." The Caraka-Samhita defines rules for such debate and suggests that we must avoid "celebration for the victor" or "any insult to the loser." These detailed rules of shastrarth(debate), as defined in the text, predate the similar guidelines in the West's nineteenth-century Robert's Rules of Order by two millennia.
      Q.58 
    Which of the following options would the author most agree with?
    a   The term Hindus applied to the people of India and not to a specific religion or sect.
     The use of the term Hindus may be controversial today but this was not the case in Ancient India.
     The media has helped to bring out many negative connotations associated with the term Hindus.
     The Hindus intellectual superiority was also helped by their inheritance of a strong bloodline and stature.
    Solution:
    In the passage, the author refrains from bringing in any religious or political references. It is also clear that the author makes references to the people of India as Hindus. There being no reference to any other group of people in India, it can be safely inferred that the term Hindus refers to all the people of India. This is also supported by the statement of Ralph Waldo Emerson when he refers to the Hindus as a unified whole and contrasts their capacity with that of the people of other Eastern nations. Option (a) is thus the answer. Option (b) can be ruled out because the passage does not indicate that the use of the term Hindus is controversial in the modern day. Option (c) is incorrect because the first paragraph only states that the findings of the research is in sharp contrast to the accounts in today's media and academia. However, one cannot assume that the media has brought out negative associations with the term Hindus. Option (d) goes beyond the information in the passage and refers to the strong bloodline of the Hindus.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority. 

    But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However, this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise. 

    Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising. 

    In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument," historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the professional press and advertising. 

    The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.
      Q.59 
    Which of the following is true about advertising according to the passage?
    a   Advertisements generate most of the revenue needed to run a print media agency.
     Powerful people, toward the end of the 19th century, paved the way for a medium that promoted advertisements.
     Advertising goes hand-in-hand with a responsible press.
     Advertisers target the audience that buys opinionated news.
    Solution:
    Refer to the last line of the third paragraph "This group…used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising." Option (a) goes beyond the information in the passage and refers to the revenues of a print media agency. Option (c) is incorrect because it talks of a dependence which is not mentioned in the passage. The passage talks of the preference of advertisers. Option (d) is in negation of the passage, as it states that advertisers prefer respectable readership who read objective news.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority. 

    But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However, this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise. 

    Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising. 

    In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument," historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the professional press and advertising. 

    The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.
      Q.60 
    Which of the following can best be inferred from the passage?
    a   The author is critical of the postmodernist theory as it sways from the influence of modernism.
     Deconstructionism will always lead to nothing as postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative.
     Newspaper articles are getting smaller in comparison with the advertisements.
     A newspaper is not based on the idiosyncratic views of the editor.
    Solution:
    Refer to the last line of the passage "No doubt they also hoped…on the advertisements that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print." 'Slender' is defined as "being of less than usual width". So, option (c) is the correct answer. The author talks of criticism of postmodernism but doesn't provide his own view on it. Hence, option (a) is incorrect. Option (b) is negated because the second paragraph clearly rejects the given argument as deconstructionism does reveal something. Option (d) is ruled out as the passage does not state that all the newspapers are objective.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority. 

    But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However, this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise. 

    Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising. 

    In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument," historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the professional press and advertising. 

    The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.
      Q.61 
    Which of the following is true about postmodernism according to the passage?
    a   Postmodernism is the resentful projection of a group of powerful people headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow Wilson's Creel Committee.
     Postmodern practices do not impeach the faith of premodern times nor do they challenge the Bible.
     Postmodernism, directly or indirectly, is the reason deconstructionism will lead to nothing.
     Postmodernism is criticized for achieving nothing substantial, despite putting a lot on the table.
    Solution:
    Refer to the first line of the passage "One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices…eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail." 'Chasing one's tail' is defined as "to be busy doing a lot of things but achieving very little". The second paragraph clearly states that deconstructionism, a practice of postmodernism, reveals that the existing assumptions are based on false assumptions. So, option (d) is the correct answer. Option (a) is ruled out because it talks of a resentful projection which is not supported by the passage. Option (b) is negated because the first paragraph clearly assigns the presence of these features to modernism and not the lack of these to postmodern practices. Option (c) is incorrect because it is the view of the critics of postmodernism which is refuted in the second paragraph.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 59 to 62: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

    One of the biggest academic criticisms of postmodernism is that its practices - especially deconstructionism - eventually lead to the chasing of one's tail. Modernism's roots attacked the faith of premodern times and the source code of western culture, the Bible-perhaps not the book itself but the belief in its absolute authority. 

    But postmodernism isn't based on any historical or philosophical narrative, which is part of the reason critics say deconstructionism will always lead to nothing. However, this argument becomes irrelevant when the deconstruction process reveals existing assumptions to be the fruit of false assumptions, assumptions that seemed right at the time but that the clear lens of history has proven otherwise. 

    Nowhere has this been truer in my life than when deconstructing the roots of professional journalism. The trade became a profession when powerful people towards the end of the 19th century said it was. Examining their thinking tarnishes the nobility that professional journalists assume and helps explain the conundrum we've behaved our way into. This group - headed by Walter Lippmann and his friends from Woodrow Wilson's Creel Committee - used the ruse of objectivity in journalism to create a sterile environment for their newspapers that was more conducive to advertising. 

    In his powerful 1990 essay, "Journalism, Publicity, and the Lost Art of Argument," historian Chris Lasch noted what he viewed as an unhealthy relationship between the professional press and advertising. 

    The rise of the advertising and public-relations industries, side by side, helps to explain why the press abdicated its most important function-enlarging the public forum-at the same time that it became more "responsible." A responsible press, as opposed to a partisan or opinionated one, attracted the kind of readers advertisers were eager to reach: well-heeled readers, most of whom probably thought of themselves as independent voters. These readers wanted to be assured that they were reading all the news that was fit to print, not an editor's idiosyncratic and no doubt biased view of things. Responsibility came to be equated with the avoidance of controversy because advertisers were willing to pay for it. Some advertisers were also willing to pay for sensationalism, though on the whole they preferred a respectable readership to sheer numbers. What they clearly did not prefer was "opinion"-not because they were impressed with Lippmann's philosophical arguments but because opinionated reporting did not guarantee the right audience. No doubt they also hoped that an aura of objectivity, the hallmark of responsible journalism, would rub off on the advertisements that surrounded increasingly slender columns of print.
      Q.62 
    Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
    a   Journalism has become more responsible.
     Western culture is based on a religious source code.
     Objectivity in journalism is a tricky illusion created merely for the purpose of supporting advertisements.
     What professional journalists assume as brave and honest behaviour is debauched by a deconstructive analysis of the thinking of the powerful people who recognized journalism as a profession toward the end of the 19th century.
    Solution:
    The passage never really accepts the responsibility that professional journalism assumes, and only calls it "responsible" in a snide manner. Option (a) is thus the correct answer. Option (b) can be inferred as the passage introduces Bible as the source code of western culture. Option (c) can be inferred from the last sentence of the third paragraph and the last paragraph. The objectivity is defined as the avoidance of controversy and lack of opinion, which ensures a respectable readership which is targeted by the advertisers. Option (d) can be inferred from the second and third sentences of the third paragraph. Journalism, as a profession, became a cover for the trade of advertising. This was revealed by the deconstruction of the roots of professional journalism.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    "If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this? 

    The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art. Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of imitators. 

    Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirrorHarrogate (2014) at Kewenig and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions, stop worrying and love the M-bomb. 

    At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class. Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99 percent? 

    Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.
      Q.63 
    From the passage, it can be inferred that
    a   Zombie abstraction and joke paintings are new techniques of art.
     Nineteenth century art had seen a growing need for the commonplace.
     The ABMB event indicated a growing preference for art that has commercial value.
     Artists are the backbone of the art world and it is they who should drive trends and dictate the aesthetical understanding of their art.
    Solution:
    Option (a) is incorrect because Zombie abstraction and joke paintings can be seen as trends in the art world. But there isn't enough information to infer that they are more specifically techniques (like texture gradation, illumination, marbelizing etc.) used by artists. They could be art movements or forms. It also cannot be inferred that they are new techniques. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage seems to suggest that nineteenth century art academic painting focussed on the French middle class. This does not indicate that nineteenth century art had a growing need for the commonplace. Option (c) can be inferred from the second sentence of the second paragraph. Option (d) cannot be inferred because the author criticises the new art trend and the role of some dealer-collectors and the plutocracy of driving this trend. But, there is no indication as to the solution to the problem presented and hence one cannot infer that the artists will be the ones to provide a solution to the situation.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    "If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this? 

    The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art. Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of imitators. 

    Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirrorHarrogate (2014) at Kewenig and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions, stop worrying and love the M-bomb. 

    At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class. Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99 percent? 

    Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.
      Q.64 
    The author's use of the phrase 'in their plutocratic likeness' can best be summarised by which of the following options?
    a   The 21st century art is based on the acceptance of art in art fairs and exhibitions.
     A growing class of art connoisseurs are naturally drawn to art that has value and that appeals to their group, the wealthy.
     Imitation art is also fast increasing and becoming a part of the new art of the 21st century.
     The plutocracy would prefer art that does not disengage from their lifestyle, ideas and perspectives.
    Solution:
    Refer to the second paragraph. The author states that there is a growing class of connoisseurs who have a special preference for art fair art (or art that has a permanent value). These connoisseurs have been influenced by the views of financial players and hence have influenced the art world to patronise art that appeals to their wealthy group (plutocratic likeness). Option (b) is thus the answer. Option (a) is incorrect because while it may be inferred from the passage, it fails to explain the phrase in the question. Option (c) is an incorrect inference. The last sentence of the second paragraph indicates that there is a growing number of imitators of art entrepreneurship and not of art itself. Option (d) does not bring out the understanding that there is predisposition towards art that has value and that appeals to the wealthy. It only states that the plutocracy would prefer art that does not hurt their lifestyle, ideas and perspectives. This option does not naturally point to the value and wealth appeal of the art.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    "If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this? 

    The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art. Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of imitators. 

    Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirrorHarrogate (2014) at Kewenig and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions, stop worrying and love the M-bomb. 

    At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class. Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99 percent? 

    Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.
      Q.65 
    From the information given in the passage, which of the following could be inferred about the author?
    a   The author is himself a collector of art and disagrees with the current trend in art.
     The author has a derogatory view of the art fair art of the 21st century.
     The author does not believe that dealer-collectors are a good influence on the art world.
     The author feels that all those who hold the view that art is something with permanent value are flawed.
    Solution:
    The author disagrees with the current trend in the art world i.e. art fair art (refer to the second paragraph and the first sentence of the third paragraph). However, it cannot be inferred that the author is himself a collector of art even though he writes with knowledge on the subject. Hence option (a) is incorrect. Option (b) can be inferred from the fourth paragraph with the use of phrases like 'content-free stuff', ' insubstantial to the point of being as light as air', 'overblown and insincere'. The author views the present trend of art fair art in a derogatory perspective. Option (c) is incorrect, because the author only states that the artisits were wary of those dealer-collectors who see art as having permanent value and who are inclined towards art fair art. He does not mention whether the influence of dealer-collectors is good or bad on the art world. Option (d) can be ruled out because the author does not attack personalities but art itself or the trends in art. In the entire passage, the author refrains from criticizing an individual in general. He criticizes the view they hold as flawed but not the individual himself. Even though he makes references to high net worth groups and their unfortunate inclination towards art fair art, he does not refer to them as flawed in general.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 63 to 66: The passage given below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. 

    "If no one ever looked at art, would anybody even create it? And how much does art actually need buyers." These reasonable queries put forth by the 2014 BMW Art Guide by Independent Collectors, appeared especially intriguing during the latest iteration of Art Basel in Miami Beach (ABMB). A positively gilded affair that looks increasingly beholden to a global art-as-asset aesthetic, this year's ABMB featured lots of shiny surfaces, stacks of joke paintings, and enough zombie abstraction to inspire several remakes of World War Z. The fair's thronged aisles of mostly uniform wares also sparked a few less political questions. Among them: Who buys all this? 

    The answer, of course, is a growing connoisseur class that has developed a special predilection for what is, without a doubt, the new art of the 21st century-art fair art. Because a growing number of financial players increasingly see art as having permanent value, these masters of the universe have successfully redrawn the global art world (as well as its proliferating entertainments) in their plutocratic likeness. Among the signs of the new times is the newfound comfort many artists have developed with art entrepreneurship's boldface names. These are the Aby Rosens, Alberto Mugrabis, and Stefan Simchowitzes of the world. More powerful still are their growing legion of imitators. 

    Where artists were once predictably wary of such dealer-collectors, they are now extremely solicitous of their money-if the loads of sunny paintings and mirrored sculptures on view at this year's ABMB are any indication. Among the latter, there are Bertrand Lavier's transparent acrylic painting on mirrorHarrogate (2014) at Kewenig and Doug Aitken's EXIT (large) (2014), a flashy take on the "Exit" sign, composed of powder coated steel and mirror at Regen Projects. Artists and their galleries shipped in scads more mirrored works and upbeat art fair art to match the Black Friday-like consumption that would follow. It did, in money-laden spades. More reason, it would seem, for artists up and down the art market ladder to scrap their critical inhibitions, stop worrying and love the M-bomb. 

    At ABMB 2014, that love officially became infatuation. Today, the 13-year-old fair can be said to specialize not just in blue chip art (everything from Basquiat and Bacon paintings to photo-based works by Cindy Sherman and Richard Prince), but in a cheery brand of content-free stuff that actively caters to the tastes of the global collecting class. Handsome, glitzy, and insubstantial to the point of being as light as air, this kind of art perfectly patronizes the tastes of today's high net worth individuals. Not unlike the effects of 19th century academic painting on the French bourgeoisie, this newfangled art Pompier is designed to be overblown and insincere (or ironic, take your pick), yet hold or increase its value while providing, in turn, an exquisite reflection of the worldview of the new overclass. But what to do when the triumph of pretty pictures-sometimes extremely pretty pictures-leaves art in the lurch with regard to the globe's other 99.99 percent? 

    Inside the Miami Beach Convention Center, it was as if Ferguson and the Eric Garner verdict had never happened-though angry pilots did protest ABMB's longtime sponsor NetJets outside the fair entrance over planned cuts and shrinking benefits, and Ferguson-related protests sprang up elsewhere in the city. With the notable exception of the very few artworks that featured critical content-among them, Kendell Geers' police baton sculpture in the shape of a pentagram at Goodman Gallery and Ana Mendieta's wrenching video of a 1975 blood strewn performance at Lelong-the vast majority of objects on view at the fair flattered or directly reflected the superior, detached ideal of today's megarich. But as with the smooth, artificial academic painting of the 19th century, there are consequences to art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the world. Here's one in a golden nugget: beauty is passing, dumb is forever.
      Q.66 
    It can be inferred that the author makes references to Ferguson and the Eric Garner verdict in order to establish that
    a   Miami was filled with protests on the one hand while the ABMB took place on the other hand.
     The majority of artwork at the ABMB catered to the ideal of the megarich.
     Despite there being insubstantial art work at display in the ABMB, there were some content-rich artists present too.
     There is a lack of involvement of the art industry at the ABMB from real world events.
    Solution:
    The last paragraph brings in references to Ferguson and the Eric Garner verdict in order to prove that those at the ABMB were removed from the events that were taking place in the real world. The second sentence indicates that most of the artwork at display in the ABMB was insubstantial and content-free (not linked with the real world) as seen from the specific and exceptional example given of Ana Geers' work. The last sentence also states that there are consequences of the art fair art's frivolous disengagement from the world i.e. art that would remain dumb forever. Option (d) is thus the answer. Option (a) does not present a point and only states a fact (Miami was filled with protests) that cannot be corroborated by the information in the passage. Option (b) is a supporting idea in the paragraph but not the main reason for why references were made to Ferguson and the Eric Garner verdict. Option (c) is incorrect because the author mentions the exceptional art at the ABMB to indicate that there was mainly content-free art at the event. The option fails to help understand why the examples of Ferguson and Eric Garner have been used.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.67 
    Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   Magic was a science in which the Egyptians excelled; its attainment was esteemed the highest exertion of human intellect.
     We can have no hesitation in stating that many of our superstitions may be traced back to Egyptian religion and customs.
     The Egyptian priests, taking advantage of the people's credulity, taught that the sun, moon, and whole hosts of heaven were endowed with intelligence, and exerted an influence over the destinies of men; and they (the priests) pretended to work miracles, and obtain oracles and omens.
     The Egyptians believed that the souls of men went into other bodies at death,-such as had been virtuous going into exalted bodies, but the vicious passing into mean reptiles and other contemptible creatures.
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is 'dcb'. Option (d) talks about what the ancient Egyptians believed happened to people after death; option (c) explains how the Egyptian priests exploited people's credulity to make themselves all-powerful by claiming that they had supernatural powers; option (b) traces the origin of some of our superstition back to Egyptian religion and customs. The sentences are discussing superstition in a generally negative way. Therefore considering option (a) which speaks of magic as a science and an intellectual achievement and in which the Egyptians apparently excelled is positive and will not be in line with the rest of the options.
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.68 
    Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   Macbeth and Banquo discover the witches and salute them.
     The play is represented as beginning in an open place, where, in a thunder-storm, three witches appear and one of them tells the other hags that she had been away killing swine.
     They were not ignorant of the supposed virtue of the mountain ash as an antidote against witchcraft.
     Through the women's subtlety, the fiend enters Macbeth's heart, and induces him to form the bloody plans of removing all obstacles in the way of his obtaining the crown, and handing it down to his descendants.
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is 'bad'. We are told that the witches meet and discuss their foul deeds in option (b); then they are discovered by Macbeth and Banquo in option (a); the witches work their evil magic and the malignant spirit makes its way into Macbeth's heart and soul and make him the monster he will become with his ruthless ambitions as stated in option (d). In option (c) it's not clear who the pronoun "they" refers to and why they'd want to use mountain ash against witchery. This choice does not belong to the narrative and therefore does not fit in the sequence.
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.69 
    Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
    a   This was only an optical delusion, but also apart from it, he blew poor Gourlay into the air by an explosion of gunpowder, the composition and power of which were unknown to the wizard, or to anyone except the friar.
     However, Gourlay the Wizard was an old friend of the powerful king of the realm - Theodoric
     The master could not bear the idea of being outdone by any one and he strode the floor in gloomy indignation.
     By means of a curious lantern, the friar made it appear that the mountain Cape-Law was rent and divided into three parts.
    Solution:
    The correct sequence is dac. Option (d) talks about how the friar works his magic with the aid of a curious lantern – making the mountain appear broken and divided into three parts; in option (a) "This" refers to the apparent act of magic by the friar which so deceives Gourlay the wizard (who was also blown away into the air by the friar with the help of gunpowder, the properties of which Gourlay ("the Master") was ignorant of); option (c) tells us about Gourlay's state of mind, that he was angry and resentful that someone had bested him through acts of magic, and, in a way, had questioned his power and authority. Option (b) states that Gourlay happened to be an old friend of the powerful king. This is of little or no significance in the narrative especially because that fact didn't seem to have stopped the friar from making a fool of Gourlay. Clearly, this choice does not fit into the sequence
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.70 
    A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way. 
    No one can say where the bones of Machiavelli rest, but modern Florence has decreed him a stately cenotaph in Santa Croce, by the side of her most famous sons; recognizing that, whatever other nations may have found in his works, Italy found in them the idea of her unity and the germs of her renaissance among the nations of Europe. It may be pointed out that the harsh construction of his doctrine which this sinister reputation implies was unknown to his own day, and that the researches of recent times have enabled us to interpret him more reasonably.
    a   Machiavelli always, the supreme realist, refused to write either of men or of governments otherwise than as he found them, and he writes with such skill and insight that his work is of abiding value.
     The Prince, Machiavelli's magnum opus, presents problems that are still debatable and interesting, because they are the eternal problems between the ruled and their rulers.
     Machiavelli was undoubtedly a man of great observation, acuteness, and industry; noting with appreciative eye whatever passed before him.
     It is largely due to modern day analyses of the man and his overarching, pragmatic philosophy that the shape of an "unholy necromancer," which so long haunted men's vision, has begun to fade.
    Solution:
    Option (d) elaborates further how the "researches of recent times have enabled us to interpret him (Machiavelli) more reasonably." While his own contemporaries did not believe him necessarily evil, some earlier criticism of the man focused on his unholy wizard persona, however modern analyses gives him credit for his practical philosophy. Options (a), (b) & (c) talk about Machiavelli's skill as a writer and do not follow logically.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.71 
    A paragraph is given below from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

    Joan of Arc was perhaps the most wonderful person who ever lived in the world. The story of her life is so strange that we could scarcely believe it to be true, if all that happened to her had not been told by people in a court of law, and written down by her deadly enemies, while she was still alive. She was burned to death when she was only nineteen: she was not seventeen when she first led the armies of France to victory, and delivered her country from the English. Joan was the daughter of a poor man, in a little country village. She had never learned to read or write.
    a   Yet she was one of the most skilled in aiming cannons, and so great a general that she defeated the English again and again, and her army was never beaten till her King deserted her.
     Yet she was so wise that many learned men could not puzzle her by questions.
     Yet she was so brave that severe wounds could not stop her from leading on her soldiers, and so tender-hearted that she would comfort the wounded English on the field of battle, and protect them from cruelty.
     Yet she was so kind that her enemies could not find one true story to tell against her.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.72 
    Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

    A. Nearly a decade of depressed job numbers leaves some experts wondering about what kind of damage has been wrought on career arcs, the psyche of the American worker, and employer-employee relations.
    B. The willingness to quit signals a welcome movement in the job market. 
    C. The resurgent quit rate-the percentage of workers leaving jobs voluntarily-may indeed end up being cause for celebration, especially if other economic indicators rise with it.
    D. But the news isn't all good.
    E. This is because it loosens up opportunities and mobility, as well as hints at increased confidence of workers who may be leaving one job before finding another.
    a   CDAEB
     EDACB
     CBEDA
     BACDE
    Solution:
    'DA' is a mandatory pair because D talks of news that is not good and the only other sentence that talks of anything negative is A. So, we can rule out option (d). Now, we know that B, C and E should come together as they talk of 'quitting' in a positive context. C explains the quit rate and introduces it as a positive sign. B carries the topic forward by focusing on the job market and E explains why 'willingness to quit' is a good thing.
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.73 
    Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

    A. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. 
    B. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. 
    C. Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good corporate governance. 
    D. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. 
    E. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market.
    a   ACBDE
     DEBAC
     ACBED
     ACDEB
    Solution:
    'AC' is a mandatory pair as A introduces the topic of corporate governance while C elaborates why corporate governance is important. B talks of another advantage of corporate governance which is related to sourcing investment for a company. So, we can negate options (b) and (d). 'DE' is another mandatory pair that talks of advantages of corporate governance. E explains the reason behind the advantage mentioned in D.
      Correct Answer : a

      Q.74 
    Five sentences are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate sequence.

    A. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. 
    B. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. 
    C. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. 
    D. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. 
    E. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates.
    a   CDEAB
     DABCE
     EDABC
     ADCBE
    Solution:
    DAB is a mandatory sequence as D introduces the role of banks in a country's overall financial stability. A and B talk of the current situation of the Indian banks. So, options (a) and (d) can be negated. E talks of the international financial markets and as it does not follow after C, it has to be the opening statement. E introduces the topic of funding constraints faced by the banks in general. So, option (b) is also negated.
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.75 
    There are two gaps in the sentence/paragraph given below. From the pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the gaps most appropriately.

    Kennedy wants to use Digs to help build a local community, a ________ she says private renters are denied by their insecure and _________existence.
    a   uniformity, idiosyncratic
     stand, erudite
     freedom, teeming
     privilege, peripatetic
    Solution:
    The passage talks of something that is denied to a private renter due to the nature of their existence. 'Peripatetic' describes someone who travels from place to place as part of a job. This word is in line with how a private renter can be described, especially when their existence is insecure. 'Idiosyncratic' refers to something that is peculiar to a person and 'erudite' refers to someone who is learned. Both the options are logically incorrect. The blank needs an adjective and hence, 'teeming' which is a verb is incorrect. . 'Privilege', which refers to a special right or advantage, should be the correct word to fill the first blank.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.76 
    The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

    Left
    a   By denying us any subsidy, the state government has left us high and dry.
     He left no stone unturned in his preparations for the exam.
     The new doctor was so brilliant that she left others standing.
     The food was not bad but it left little to be desired.
    Solution:
    The correct idiom in option (d) should have been 'leave a lot to be desired' which refers to something being inadequate or unsatisfactory. 'To leave someone high and dry' is to leave someone in a helpless situation. 'To leave no stone unturned' is to make every possible effort. 'To leave somebody/someone standing' is to be much better than everything or everyone else.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.77 
    The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

    Bite
    a   He knew if he gave up now, he would bite the dust.
     They just had to bite the bullet and get on with it, or disappear into oblivion.
     You should be careful not to bite the fingers that feed you.
     There was no need to bite his head off. He only wanted to help!
    Solution:
    'To bite the dust' is to fail while 'to bite the bullet' is to bear an unpleasant or difficult situation. 'To bite someone's head off' is to scold someone or to speak very angrily to someone. Option (c) uses the wrong idiom. It should be 'bite the hand that feeds' which refers to treat someone badly who has helped you in some way.
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.78 
    The words given below have been used in the given sentences in four different ways. Choose the option corresponding to the sentence in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

    Face
    a   The team won in the face of stiff competition.
     If he has anything to say, he should say it on my face.
     On the face of it, the deal was mutually beneficial for both the firms.
     Mark just pulled a face at him and walked away.
    Solution:
    'In the face of something' means despite. So, the team won despite tough competition. 'On the face of it' refers to how something appears on the surface. 'To pull/ make a face at something' is to make an unpleasant expression. The correct idiom in option (b) should be 'say it to my face' which means to say something directly to me.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.79 
    Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.

    I. The new ships were larger than the small harbor-defense craft and harbor axillaries (A)/auxiliaries (B) that had initially been built for defense. 
    II. The extraordinary growth of progressive economies defies the canons (A)/cannons (B) of economics. 
    III. He took stringent measures to suppress political descent (A)/dissent (B). 
    IV. During the war, the army was looking for supplies of heavy ordnance (A)/ ordinance (B). 
    V. Her scarf was fastened round her neck with a brooch (A)/broach (B).
    a   ABABA
     BBABA
     AABAB
     BABAA
    Solution:
    'Axillary' refers to something that is related to the armpit while 'auxiliary' refers to something that is additional or supplementary. 'Canon' refers to a general law or principle while a 'cannon' refers to a large, heavy piece of artillery. 'Descent' could either refer to the act of moving downwards or to the origin or background of a person while 'dissent' refers to a disagreement. ' Ordnance' means artillery or a branch of government service dealing especially with military stores and materials. ' Ordinance' refers either to an authoritative order or a religious rite. A 'brooch' is an ornament that is fastened to clothing while 'broach' is a verb which refers to raising a subject for discussion.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.80 
    Given below are five sentences. Each sentence has a pair of words that are italicized. From the italicized words, select the most appropriate words (A or B) to form correct sentences. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the set of sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one.

    I. The new curtains complemented (A)/ complimented (B) the carpet very well.
    II. Don't hesitate to demur (A)/demure (B) to the idea if you have any issues.
    III. The Princess laid a wreath (A)/wreathe (B) at the war memorial.
    IV. The students were asked to canvass (A)/canvas (B) the situation after the celebrations were over.
    V. The brothers decided to immigrate (A)/emigrate (B) to the United States.
    a   ABBBA
     AAAAB
     BBAAB
     BABAA
    Solution:
    To 'complement' something is to contribute extra features in order to improve something or to complete something, while to 'compliment' is to politely congratulate or praise someone or something. 'Demur' is to raise objections or show reluctance while 'demure' means shy and modest. 'Wreath' refers either to an arrangement of flowers or a ring of smoke while 'wreathe' is cover or encircle something. 'Canvass' is to solicit votes, to consider something carefully or to propose an idea while a 'canvas' refers to a strong, rough cloth used for making bags, sails, tents, etc. or a painting made on a piece of cloth. As a verb, 'canvas' refers to covering or furnishing something with a canvas. To 'immigrate' is to come to live permanently in a foreign country while to 'emigrate' is to leave one's own country in order to settle permanently in another country. The choice of these options depends on the sentence's point of view.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.81 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    Throughout history, various explorers have reported sightings of mermaids, the most famous of which was Christopher Columbus. 

    Columbus claimed to have spotted mermaids near Haiti in 1493, which he described as being "not as pretty as they are depicted, for somehow in the face they look like men," according to the American Museum of Natural History. 

    Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen Columbus' claim?
    a   According to mythology, Mermaids have been known to exist in the waters surrounding Haiti since 1000 BC.
     Captain John Smith was reported to have seen a big-eyed, green-haired mermaid in 1614 off the coast of Newfoundland.
     Fossils, recently discovered near the Indian Ocean, indicate the existence of a species that anatomically resembles legendary descriptions of mermaids.
     The mermaid has featured frequently on postage stamps from Haiti throughout its history as a republic.
    Solution:
    Option (a) doesn't strengthen the claim as it only talks of mythology which may or may not have reality as its base. Option (b) strengthens the claim with another seafarer claiming to have seen a mermaid. Option (c) strengthens the claim more as it talks of evidence which proves the existence of a species that looks like mermaids. Option (d) does not affect the claim as we cannot infer that a stamp will feature only things or living beings that actually exist.
      Correct Answer : c

      Q.82 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows. 

    The prevalence of respiratory and skin ailments among nail salon workers is widely acknowledged. More uncertain, however, is their risk for direr medical issues. Some of the chemicals in nail products are known to cause cancer; others have been linked to abnormal fetal development, miscarriages and other harm to reproductive health. A number of studies have also found that cosmetologists - a group that includes manicurists, as well as hairdressers and makeup artists - have elevated rates of death from Hodgkin's disease, of low birth-weight babies and of multiple myeloma, a form of cancer. 

    Which of the following can be logical concluded from the given paragraph.
    a   Some ingredients used in nail products have been tied to terminal diseases.
     Some ingredients used in nail products have been tied to cancer, miscarriages, lung diseases and other ailments, posing threat to those who work with them everyday.
     Some ingredients used in all nail products are dangerous and should be avoided.
     Some ingredients used in nail products are a threat to those who work with them everyday.
    Solution:
    The passage talks of nail products having certain chemicals which are harmful for the people who work with them as they cause certain medical complications which can even cause death. Only option (b) mentions the complete idea. Options (a) and (d) are correct inferences but are incomplete conclusions. Option (c) is negated because the passage does not talk of harmful ingredients in 'all' nail products. It is possible that there is at least one nail product which does not have harmful ingredients.
      Correct Answer : b

      Q.83 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    Assault weapons (semiautomatic firearms that have features that appear useful in military and criminal context and rifles but unnecessary in shooting sports or self-defence) are designed for assault; therefore, their proliferation should be prohibited by law. Every year in the United States, 17,000 people are killed out of which 70 percent of them are killed with guns and 20,000 people commit suicide by shooting themselves. Murder by gunfire particularly affects children. In total, well over a million Americans have died in this manner and 80 people continue to be shot in the US every day. So, a ban on assault weapons is a good point to start saving lives. 

    Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument presented above?
    a   Deaths as a result of assault weapons are a tiny portion of the total firearms deaths.
     To ban the weapon is unfair;we should make their license policy more strict.
     If we were to accept that self-defence is the only legitimate reason for owning a gun then we should also be able to choose which type of gun.
     People who currently use assault weapons would resort to other types of guns which would not fall under this ban.
    Solution:
    The argument in the passage is that a large number of people die in the United States due to gunfire and hence, assault weapons (a type of gun) should be banned. Option (a) states that assault weapons are responsible for only a very small portion of deaths caused by gun fire. This does not weaken the need to ban assault weapons as they still contribute to the deaths caused by gun fire. Option (b) is ruled out because it does not question the need to ban assault weapons, it only states that other steps would also need to be taken to save lives. Option (c) does not affect the argument as it talks of a freedom to choose a weapon to be used for self-defence. Option (d) is the correct answer as it weakens the argument by stating that a ban on assault weapons will not help to save lives. People who cause harm by assault weapons will still continue to cause harm by choosing other type of guns.
      Correct Answer : d

      Q.84 
    Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

    Nuclear weapons are, by their very nature, indiscriminate and disproportional; any weapon which could not possibly be used in a responsible manner should not be permitted. Over the past fifty years, we have seen a general tendency towards limited warfare and precision weapons, allowing military objectives to be achieved with minimal loss of civilian life. The entire point of nuclear weapons, however, is their massive, indiscriminate destructive power. Their use could kill tens of thousands of civilians directly, and their catastrophic environmental after-effects would harm many more all around the world. These effects could never be morally acceptable, particularly as the basis of one's national security strategy. They place 'humanity and most forms of life in jeopardy of annihilation' (Krieger, 2003). No state or leader can be entrusted, morally, with that power and responsibility. 

    Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument presented above?
    a   Most leaders do not defend the nuclear weapons per se but insist that they remain a necessary means to a peaceful end.
     The damage done by a nuclear weapon is no more indiscriminate or disproportional than the damage potentially caused by a prolonged aerial bombardment.
     The only effective means to deter the development of a nuclear weapon is a nuclear weapon.
     By claiming the efficacy of nuclear weapons as a strategic deterrent, the current nuclear powers encourage the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction.
    Solution:
    The argument presented in the passage is that due to the immense potential of nuclear weapons to cause harm, no nation should be allowed to keep or use them. Option (a) is negated because it does not affect the argument. It merely states a trend. Option (b) compares the destruction caused by nuclear weapons with the destruction caused by prolonged aerial bombardment. Just because nations can use some other means also to cause immense destruction, we cannot conclude that it is safe for nations to keep or use nuclear weapons. Option (c) is ruled out because if none of the nations would be allowed to keep nuclear weapons, the development of nuclear weapons can be avoided. Option (d) is the only option that strengthens the given argument. It states that as a country will not use a nuclear weapon against another country that also possesses a nuclear weapon, all the countries will want to possess nuclear weapons in order to ensure their own safety. So, even though it is part of a country's national security strategy, it would lead to the proliferation of these weapons of mass destruction which as the passage states, cannot be used in a responsible manner and hence, should not be permitted.
      Correct Answer : d

    Direction for question 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not necessarily in the given order.

    Some additional information is given below:

    I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.
    II. The Collie stood first.
    III. Max stood second.
    IV. Jack is an Airedale. 
    V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
    VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.
      Q.85 
    The first rank was obtained by
    a   Ms Anubhuti's dog
     Ms Rakhi's dog
     Max
     Jack
    Solution:
    The given information can be tabulated as shown below:

    The first prize is won by ms. Rakhi's dog.
      Correct Answer : b

    Direction for question 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not necessarily in the given order.

    Some additional information is given below:

    I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.
    II. The Collie stood first.
    III. Max stood second.
    IV. Jack is an Airedale. 
    V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
    VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.
      Q.86 
    The breed of Ms. Suchita's dog was
    a   Collie
     Boxer
     Airedale
     Dobermann
    Solution:
    The given information can be tabulated as shown below:

    The breed of ms. Suchita's dog is Airedale.
      Correct Answer : c

    Direction for question 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not necessarily in the given order.

    Some additional information is given below:

    I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.
    II. The Collie stood first.
    III. Max stood second.
    IV. Jack is an Airedale. 
    V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
    VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.
      Q.87 
    In which of the following statements, are the dogs correctly listed in the descending order of their rank (highest rank to lowest rank)?
    I. Kelly; the Airedale; Ms Anubhuti's dog
    II. The boxer; Ms Suchita's dog; Jack
    III. Ms Anubhuti's dog; the Airedale; Lad
    a   I only
     II only
     III only
     I and III
    Solution:
    The given information can be tabulated as shown below:

    Dogs are correctly listed in the descending order of their prizes in option (c).
      Correct Answer : c

    Direction for question 85 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Four dogs, each of a different breed from amongst Airedale, Boxer, Collie and Doberman, participated in the 'Kennel Show' and obtained the top four ranks. Name of the dogs were Jack, Kelly, Lad and Max, not necessarily in the same order. Their owners are Ms Anubhuti, Ms Dewdrops, Ms Suchita and Ms Rakhi, again not necessarily in the given order.

    Some additional information is given below:

    I. Ms. Suchita's dog stood neither first nor second.
    II. The Collie stood first.
    III. Max stood second.
    IV. Jack is an Airedale. 
    V. Ms Dewdrops' dog, the Doberman, ranked fourth.
    VI. The name of Ms Rakhi's dog is Kelly.
      Q.88 
    Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
    A. Max is a boxer.
    B. The Doberman is Lad.
    C. Jack wins the third prize.
    a   A and B
     A and C
     A, B and C
     B and C
    Solution:
    The given information can be tabulated as shown below:

    Conclusions A, B and C can be drawn on the basis of the given information.
      Correct Answer : c

    Direction for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents - Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton. 

    Some additional information is given below:
    (i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
    (ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
    (iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
    (iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
    (v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
    (viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that of those sitting on his/her left.
      Q.89 
    Based on the given information which of the following can be determined uniquely?
    a   The game played by father
     Who plays badminton
     Who is sitting at the middle
     Who plays cricket
    Solution:
    From (ii), there are at least 2 persons between parents. Since one parent has children sitting on either sides, he/she cannot be at the edge. From (iv) one of the parents plays chess and is sitting at 2nd from either end. And the other parent is sitting at other end, and he/she plays one of the ball games, so from (vi) the person playing badminton is sitting adjacent to him/her. If the mother is sitting at one end, and daughter cannot sit with her father, so she will be sitting adjacent to her mother, and in that case 3 males will be sitting together, which is not possible. Hence father is sitting at one end, and daughter sits at middle position.

    So the only possible arrangement is as follows:
    Father (badminton player) Daughter Mother ____

    On the basis of the given information, the position of the person who is sitting at middle position can be determined.
      Correct Answer : c

    Direction for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents - Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton. 

    Some additional information is given below:
    (i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
    (ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
    (iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
    (iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
    (v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
    (viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that of those sitting on his/her left.
      Q.90 
    If the elder son plays basketball, which game does younger son play?
    a   Cricket
     Badminton
     Tennis
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:
    From (ii), there are at least 2 persons between parents. Since one parent has children sitting on either sides, he/she cannot be at the edge. From (iv) one of the parents plays chess and is sitting at 2nd from either end. And the other parent is sitting at other end, and he/she plays one of the ball games, so from (vi) the person playing badminton is sitting adjacent to him/her. If the mother is sitting at one end, and daughter cannot sit with her father, so she will be sitting adjacent to her mother, and in that case 3 males will be sitting together, which is not possible. Hence father is sitting at one end, and daughter sits at middle position.

    So the only possible arrangement is as follows:
    Father (badminton player) Daughter Mother ____

    If the elder son plays basketball then he is sitting at one end and younger brother is at 2nd from other end and plays badminton.
      Correct Answer : b

    Direction for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents - Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton. 

    Some additional information is given below:
    (i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
    (ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
    (iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
    (iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
    (v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
    (viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that of those sitting on his/her left.
      Q.91 
    Which of the following statements will be required to determine the game played by father?
    a   Younger son plays badminton
     Daughter plays tennis
     Daughter plays cricket
     No additional information is required
    Solution:
    From (ii), there are at least 2 persons between parents. Since one parent has children sitting on either sides, he/she cannot be at the edge. From (iv) one of the parents plays chess and is sitting at 2nd from either end. And the other parent is sitting at other end, and he/she plays one of the ball games, so from (vi) the person playing badminton is sitting adjacent to him/her. If the mother is sitting at one end, and daughter cannot sit with her father, so she will be sitting adjacent to her mother, and in that case 3 males will be sitting together, which is not possible. Hence father is sitting at one end, and daughter sits at middle position.

    So the only possible arrangement is as follows:
    Father (badminton player) Daughter Mother ____

    If daughter plays tennis then other person sitting with mother plays cricket and hence father plays basketball.
      Correct Answer : b

    Direction for questions 89 to 92: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Preeti along with her elder brother, Parth, Younger brother, Sanju, and her parents - Rajeev ( father) and Neeru (mother), is sitting for a photoshoot. Each of the them plays exactly one game out of the 5 games, 3 ball games namely Basketball, Tennis and Cricket, and 2 non-ball games namely Chess and Badminton. 

    Some additional information is given below:
    (i) Preeti is not sitting adjacent to her father.
    (ii) No child is sitting adjacent to both the parents.
    (iii) Exactly one of the parents plays a ball game.
    (iv) One of the parents, who plays chess, is adjacent to two of his/her children.
    (v) Cricket and chess players are sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vi) The persons who play the non-ball games are not sitting adjacent to each other.
    (vii) All males of the family are not sitting together.
    (viii) The number of persons sitting to the right of the chess player is not more than that of those sitting on his/her left.
      Q.92 
    Sitting position of how many of them can be determined uniquely?
    a   2
     3
     1
     All of them
    Solution:
    From (ii), there are at least 2 persons between parents. Since one parent has children sitting on either sides, he/she cannot be at the edge. From (iv) one of the parents plays chess and is sitting at 2nd from either end. And the other parent is sitting at other end, and he/she plays one of the ball games, so from (vi) the person playing badminton is sitting adjacent to him/her. If the mother is sitting at one end, and daughter cannot sit with her father, so she will be sitting adjacent to her mother, and in that case 3 males will be sitting together, which is not possible. Hence father is sitting at one end, and daughter sits at middle position.

    So the only possible arrangement is as follows:
    Father (badminton player) Daughter Mother ____

    Sitting position of exactly three persons can be determined uniquely.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu, Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time. To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following additional information is given about them.
    I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
    II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
    III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
    IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither Vijender nor Gorkhi.
    V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi. 
    VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with a different drink.
      Q.93 
    Who among the following cannot be the person who gave a treat at CCD?
    I. Babbu
    II. Sonu
    III. Abhinav
    IV. Vijender
    a   I and III
     II, III and IV
     Only IV
     None of these
    Solution:

    At CCD any one among Anurag (Babbu) or Abhinav (Sonu or Tinkle) can treat but not Vijender.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu, Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time. To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following additional information is given about them.
    I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
    II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
    III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
    IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither Vijender nor Gorkhi.
    V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi. 
    VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with a different drink.
      Q.94 
    If Anurag treated his friends with Cold Coffee, then with which drink did Sonu treat his friends?
    a   Vodka
     Milk
     Fruit juice
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

    It cannot be determined whether Sonu is Vijender or Abhinav, so drink with which Sonu treats cannot be determined.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu, Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time. To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following additional information is given about them.
    I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
    II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
    III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
    IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither Vijender nor Gorkhi.
    V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi. 
    VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with a different drink.
      Q.95 
    Which drink was served at Barista?
    a   Pepsi
     Fruit Juice
     Cold Coffee
     Milk
    Solution:

    Pepsi is served at Barista.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 93 to 96: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    Five friends Anurag, Vijender, Vipin, Parakram and Abhinav, nicknamed Sonu, Tinkle, Babbu, Monu and Gorkhi (not necessarily in that order) met after a long time. To celebrate their reunion each of them decided to treat all other friends at different cafeterias viz. Barista, CCD, Mocha, Mojo and Keventers. Each cafeteria serves a different drink from among Fruit juice, Pepsi, Vodka, Milk and Cold Coffee. Following additional information is given about them.
    I. Anurag, who is not Sonu or Tinkle, didn't treat at Keventers.
    II. Parakram, who is Gorkhi, didn't treat with Vodka or at CCD.
    III. Monu, who is not Abhinav or Anurag, treated at Barista.
    IV. Abhinav treated with a drink whose name started with the same alphabet as of the cafeteria in which it is served. The same holds true for one other friend, who is neither Vijender nor Gorkhi.
    V. Vodka was served at Mojo, and Vipin treated with Pepsi. 
    VI. Each friend has a different nickname, treats at a different cafeteria and treats with a different drink.
      Q.96 
    How many of the following cafeterias could be the one in which Tinkle could give a treat?
    I. Mocha
    II. Mojo
    III. CCD
    a   I and II
     I and III
     II and III
     I, II and III
    Solution:

    Tinkle can give a treat in any one of the mentioned Cafeterias.
      Correct Answer : d

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and white balls.
    I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
    II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
    III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
    IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25), you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has", said one of the friends.
      Q.97 
    The number of balls with the three friends put together cannot be more than
    a   12
     19
     24
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

    The number of ball with the three cannot be more than 19.
      Correct Answer : b

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and white balls.
    I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
    II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
    III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
    IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25), you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has", said one of the friends.
      Q.98 
    Who is the speaker?
    a   Saptarsh
     Rushat
     Trivendra
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

    Speaker is Saptarsh.
      Correct Answer : a

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and white balls.
    I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
    II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
    III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
    IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25), you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has", said one of the friends.
      Q.99 
    The number of balls with Saptarsh cannot be more than
    a   3
     9
     6
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

    The number of ball with Saptarsh cannot be more than 6.
      Correct Answer : c

    Directions for questions 97 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

    There are three friends - Saptarsh, Rushat and Trivendra - each has some red and white balls.
    I. Saptarsh has atleast one red ball and twice as many white balls as red balls.
    II. Rushat has atleast one red ball and three times as many white balls as red balls.
    III. Trivendra has atleast one red ball and three more white balls than red balls.
    IV. When I tell you the number of balls we have altogether (the number is less than 25), you will know how many balls I have, but not how many balls each of the others has", said one of the friends.
      Q.100 
    How many balls does Rushat have?
    a   8
     12
     4
     Cannot be determined
    Solution:

    The number of balls with Rushat cannot be calculated.
      Correct Answer : d

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